Kerala High Court
M/S.Flemingo Duty Free Shop Pvt. Ltd vs Union Of India on 12 February, 2016
Author: K. Ramakrishnan
Bench: P.N.Ravindran, K.Ramakrishnan
"CR"
IN THE HIGH COURT OF KERALA AT ERNAKULAM
PRESENT:
THE HONOURABLE MR.JUSTICE P.N.RAVINDRAN
&
THE HONOURABLE MR. JUSTICE K.RAMAKRISHNAN
TUESDAY, THE 22ND DAY OF AUGUST 2017/31ST SRAVANA, 1939
WA.No. 354 of 2016 () IN WP(C).861/2016
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AGAINST THE ORDER/JUDGMENT IN WP(C) 861/2016 of THIS COURT
DATED 12-02-2016
APPELLANTS/PETITIONERS:
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1. M/S.FLEMINGO DUTY FREE SHOP PVT. LTD.
A COMPANY REGISTERED UNDER THE COMPANIES ACT, 1956, AND
HAVING ITS REGISTERED OFFICE AT D-73/1, TTC IND.AREA,
MIDC-TURBHE, NAVI MUMBAI-400 075 THROUGH ITS
SENIOR GENERAL MANAGER MR.R.MURALI.
2. MR.VIREN AHUJA
S/O.VINI AHUJA, HAVING HIS OFFICE AT NO.39, FIRST FLOOR,
K.V.APARTMENTS, POES GARDEN, CHENNAI-600 086.
BY ADVS.SRI.E.K.NANDAKUMAR (SR.)
SRI.M.GOPIKRISHNAN NAMBIAR
SRI.P.GOPINATH
SRI.P.BENNY THOMAS
SRI.K.JOHN MATHAI
SRI.JOSON MANAVALAN
SRI.KURYAN THOMAS
SRI.P S RAMAN (SR)
RESPONDENTS/RESPONDENTS:
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1. UNION OF INDIA
MINISTRY OF CIVIL AVIATION, RAJIV GANDHI BHAWAN,
SAFDARJUNG AIRPORT, NEW DELHI-110 003
REPRESENTED BY ITS SECRETARY.
2. AIRPORTS AUTHORITY OF INIDA,
A STATUTORY AUTHORITY CONSTITUTED U/S. 3 OF THE AIRPORTS
AUTHORITY OF INDIA ACT, 1994, HAVING ITS OFFICE AT RAJIV
GANDHI BHAWAN, SAFDARJUNG AIRPORT, NEW DELHI-110 003,
REPRESENTED BY ITS CHAIRMAN.
3. AIRPORTS AUTHORITY OF INIDA (SUTHERN REGION)
OFFICE OF REGIONAL EXECUTIVE DIRECTOR, OPERATIONAL
OFFICES, SOUTHERN REGION, CHENNAI-600 027
REPRESENTED BY ITS REGIONAL EXECUTIVE DIRECTOR.
4. AGM DUTY FREE SELATAN SDN BH
16TH FLOOR, MENARA SAFAUN, 50540, KULALAMPUR, MALAYSIA.
WITH PREENT OFFICE (LOCAL) AT DOOR NO.86/A,
ROYAL COMPLEX, SANKARI ROAD, SEETHARAMPALAYAM,
TRICHECGODE, NAMAKKAL DISTRICT, TAMILNADU-637 209.
R2&R3 BY ADV. SRI.V.SANTHARAM
R1 BY ADV. SRI.R.PRASANTH KUMAR, CGC
R4 BY ADV. SRI.N.N.SUGUNAPALAN (SR.)
R4 BY ADV. SRI.G.SREEKUMAR (CHELUR)
THIS WRIT APPEAL HAVING BEEN FINALLY HEARD ON 14.6.2017,
THE COURT ON 22-08-2017 DELIVERED THE FOLLOWING:
WA.No. 354 of 2016 () IN WP(C).861/2016
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APPELLANTS' ANNEXURE:
ANNEXURE-A TRUE COPY OF THE COVERING LETTER DATED 9.2.2016 ISSUED BY
THE AIRPORTS AUTHORITY OF INDIA ALONG WITH THE NOTING OF THE
EVALUATION COMMITTEE OBTAINED UNDER THE RIGHT TO INFORMATION ACT,
2005.
ANNEXURE B TRUE COPY OF THE LETTER DATED 15.4.2016 ISSUED BY THE 1ST
APPELLANT.
ANNEXURE C TRUE COPY OF THE REPLY/EMAIL DATED 13.5.2016 ISSUED BY
SENAI INTERNATIONAL AIRPORT.
ANNEXURE D TRUE COPY OF THE EMAIL COMMUNICATION DATED 13.5.2016
ISSUED BY APPELLANT NO.1
ANNEXURE E TRUE COPY OF THE REPLY EMAIL COMMUNICIATION DATED
16.5.2016.
RESPONDENTS' ANNEXURES:
ANNEXURE R4(h) TRUE COPY OF THE INFORMATION REGARDING SERIAL NO.2
PORT THAT IS HOHOR PORT.
ANNEXURE R4(I) TRUE COPY OF THE INFORMATION REGARDING SERIAL NO.3
PORT OF TANJUNG PELEPAS
ANNEXURE R4(j) TRUE COPY OF THE INFORMATION REGARDING SERIAL NO.4
PORT OF TANJUNG PENGGERANG
ANNEXURE R4(k) TRUE COPY OF THE INFORMATION REGARDING THE EXISTENCE
AND OPERATION OF SERIAL NO.5 TANJUNG LANGSAT PORT
ANNEXURE R4(l) TRUE COPY OF THE INFORMATION REGARDING SERIAL NO.6
BELUNGKOR FERI TERMINAL.
ANNEXURE R4(m) TRUE COPY OF THE INFORMATION REGARDING SERIAL NO.7
SENAI INTERNATIONAL AIRPORT.
ANNEXURE R4(n) TRUE COPY OF THE CLASSIFICATIONS DATED 29.3.2016SOUGHT
FROM THE ROYAL MALAYASIAN CUSTOMER DEPARTMENT.
ANNEXURE R4(o) TRUE COPY OF REPLY DATED 3.3.2016 RECEIVED FROM THE
SENIIOR ASSISTANT DIRECTOR OF ROYAL ASIAN CUSTOMER DEPARTMENT.
ANNEXURE R4(p) TRUE COPY OF THE STANDING ORDER DATED 2.5.2014 ISSUED
BY THE DEPARTMENT DETAILING THE PROCEDURE FOR THE WORKING THE DUTY
FREE SHOPS IN MALAYASIA.
ANNEXURE R4(q) A TRUE COPY OF THE CUSTOMS ORDER NO.55 ALONG WITH
SUBSEQUENT AMENDMENTS ISSUED BY ROYAL MALAYSIAN CUSTOMS DEPARTMENT
HAVING REFERENCE NO.KE.HE.(-)669/05(8) DATED 2.5.2014
ANNEXURE R4(r) A TRUE COPY OF THE COMMUNICATION ISSUED BY THE
ROAYAL MALAYASIAN CUSTOMS DEPARTMENT DATED 13.5.2015.
ANNEXURE R4(s) TRUE COPY OF THE RTI APPLICATION OF R4 DATED 31.3.2016
ALONG WITH REPLY AND ATTACHED DOCUMENTS RELATING TO TRIVANDRUM
INTERNATIONAL AIRPORT.
ANNEXURE R4(t) TRUE COPY OF THE RTI APPLICATION OF R4 DATED
11.4.2016 ALONG WITH REPLY AND ATTACHED DOCUMENTS RELATING TO
CHENNAI SEA PORT.
ANNEXURE R4(u) TRUE COPY OF THE RTI APPLICATION OF R4 DATED
11.4.2016 ALONG WITH REPLY AND ATTACHED DOCUMENTS RELATING TO
TRICHY INTERNATIONAL AIRPORT.
ANNEXURE R4(v) A TRUE COPY OF THE BILLS DATED 13.6.2016.
ANNEXURE R4(w) A TRUE COPY OF THE EMAIL.
/TRUE COPY/
P.S TO JUDGE
cl
"CR"
P.N. RAVINDRAN & K. RAMAKRISHNAN, JJ.
.......................................
W.A.No.354 of 2016
........................................
Dated this the 22nd day of August, 2017.
JUDGMENT
K. RAMAKRISHNAN, J:
The petitioners in W.P.(C).No.861 of 2016 are the appellants in the above appeal wherein they challenge the judgment delivered by the learned single judge dismissing the writ petition. The brief facts of the case are as follows:
2. The first appellant is a company incorporated under the Companies Act, 1956, engaged in the business of operation and management of Duty Free Shops which sell and/or deal in duty free goods at airports and seaports in India. They are operating Duty Free Shops in India at several places like Chennai, Calicut, Mangalore, Goa, Kolkata, Trichy and Ahemadabad international airports and also at Thiruvananthapuram, Jaipur, Amritsar and Lucknow through M/s.
Flemingo DFS Pvt. Ltd., which is a hundred percent owned subsidiary of appellant company for which they have signed contracts to operate the Duty Free Shops at International Airports with the Airports Authority of India, the second respondent herein. They are operating at present 26 such Duty Free Shops at various airports and seaports in India. They are part of a multinational travel retail group operating more than 160 outlets over 30 countries spread across Asia, Europe, W.A.No.354 of 2016 2 Africa and Latin America. At present, they are conducting Duty Free Shops at International Airport at Thiruvananthapuram as well, under temporary extension granted by the second respondent. They have executed license agreement with the second respondent through M/s. Flemingo (DFS) Pvt.Ltd and they have been issued license under Section 58 of the Customs Act, 1962 by the jurisdictional Commissioner of Customs for this purpose which is co terminus with the license agreement entered into with the Airports Authority for running a Duty Free Shop in that airport. The second appellant, who is a citizen of India, is a shareholder of the first appellant company.
3. The second respondent floated a Request For Proposal (hereinafter called RFP) for the subject airport, that is Thiruvananthapuram airport, inviting global tenders for conducting Duty Free Shops at Thiruvananthapuram airport terminal along with other international airports in India. Earlier, the first appellant had bid the tender for conducting duty free shop and executed a license agreement dated 4.3.2009 which is valid from 10.1.2007 to 9.1.2012 for space admeasuring 42.46 Sq.ms and also executed another license agreement dated 21.12.2009 valid from 10.6.2009 to 9.6.2014 for space admeasuring 44.83 Sq.ms with the second respondent and these agreements were valid for a period of five years. Thereafter W.A.No.354 of 2016 3 the second respondent had granted extension to conduct the duty free retail outlet till 31st December 2014 which has been recently extended till 31.3.2016 or till the award of new tender.
4. In the month of March, 2015, the third respondent floated a tender to design, built, operate and maintain duty free outlets at Thiruvananthapuram airport (hereinafter called the first tender) and thereafter issued various corrigenda. It was widely advertised in local and national newspapers and e-tenders were invited and 11 companies including the first appellant company purchased the tender documents. It is also mentioned that the interval between the date of floating RFP and the Proposal Due Date (PDD) was more than 60 days and thereby the participating bidders had enough time to evaluate and take a decision on submission of their proposals. The first appellant being an incumbent duty free operator had to obtain no due certificates from all the international airports in India. They had to put in a lot of efforts and expense in comparing and preparing the bid documents for submission of its proposal. They uploaded the technical proposal documents and also submitted its financial proposal in the e-tender portal of the respondents.
5. In pursuance to the first tender on 2nd July, 2015, the technical proposals of the rival bidders were opened at New Delhi. W.A.No.354 of 2016 4 Thereafter on 8th July 2015, the first appellant received an e-mail from the respondents requesting response to various queries in relation to the proposal submitted by it which was promptly responded by the first appellant. Thereafter on 27th July, 2015, the first appellant sought a feed back as to why the financial opening tentatively scheduled on 10th July, 2015 was being delayed. On 4th August, 2015 they received a reply stating that the bids are under scrutiny. During early September, 2015, the first appellant came to understand that respondents 2 and 3 intended to cancell the first tender and float fresh tender for the subject of Duty Free Shops and the first appellant immediately protested and requested intervention from various authorities.
6. However without considering their protest, on 23rd September, 2015 a newspaper advertisement was published in the Times of India, Mumbai edition, which is a notice inviting tender with respect to 14 airports including Thiruvananthapuram. This was followed by issuance of a second tender dated 24th September, 2015, which is marked as Ext.P1. Thereafter various corrigendum notices were issued extending the deadlines of the subject tender. According to the first appellant, without considering the objections raised by them, cancellation of the first tender and floating of the second tender are W.A.No.354 of 2016 5 illegal and arbitrary. The letter of objection submitted by the first appellant dated 22.9.2015 to the third respondent is marked as Ext.P2.
7. Though no action was taken, considering the exigencies, the appellants participated in the second tender and submitted their tender. It is mentioned in the writ petition that the petitioners downloaded the impugned second tender on 24th September, 2015 and attended the pre-bid meeting of the potential bidders held on 9.10.2015 and then uploaded their pre-bid queries in e-tender portal of the respondents. They have issued a total of 8 corrigendum notices modifying the various clauses of the impugned tender.
8. As per one of the corrigendum notices, the respondents fixed the time for on line submission of bids proposal (technical as well as financial) on e-tender portal till 11.00 hours IST on 6th November, 2015 which was duly complied by the first appellant and its bids were uploaded before above the said deadline. On 6th November, 2015 at 12.15 pm, which was well after the expiry of the stipulated deadline, the third respondent issued corrigendum No.8, whereby for the reasons best known to them, they retrospectively extended the time for on line submission of bids for proposal. Such corrigendums issued are produced and marked as Exts.P3 and P3(a). According to the W.A.No.354 of 2016 6 appellants, this could not have been done after the expiry of the period and it is arbitrary.
9. As per Clause 2.13.8, the submission of proposals (technical and financial proposals) through online portal are mandatory and the bidders are advised to submit the proposal through online portal well in advance to avoid network problems. The authorities will not be responsible for any inability for submission of proposals before the Proposal Due Date due to technical problem/network errors. The appellants simply believed that the 4th respondent has not even fulfilled the threshold eligibility criteria stated in the RFP. The fourth respondent could not have even qualified the technical capacity under the threshold eligibility criteria as required under the RFP. Internet enquiries made by the appellants revealed a paucity of information pertaining to the fourth respondent that they have submitted false details in the tender submitted by them.
10. To the knowledge of the appellants, the fourth respondent is operating only in one seaport namely Pasir Gudang ferry terminal at Malaysia. At other locations, they were only operating as distributor wholesale and ship chandler, but not as a duty free retailer. So the other seven outlets mentioned by them in the tender notice is incorrect.
W.A.No.354 of 2016 7
11. On 29.11.2015, the financial opening of the second tender was held at the office of the third respondent which was attended by the first appellant through its representative. When the financial bid was opened, it was found that the fourth respondent had quoted a figure of 40.06% which was 0.06% above the figure quoted by the first appellant namely 40%. On the same day, the first appellant sent an e-mail to the third respondent and other officers in the department stating that the revenue share of 40.06% quoted by the fourth respondent was in clear contravention of the provisions of the RFP which in clear and unequivocal terms stipulated that the revenue shares must be a whole number only and that, fraction or decimal of a digit is not permitted. So the first appellant requested that the fourth respondent should be disqualified from participating in any further process for award of the concession for the subject airport. The true copy of the letter dated 26.11.2015 given by the appellants to the third respondent is produced and marked as Ext.P4.
12. On 30th November, 2015, the third respondent informed through an e-mail to the the first appellant that the financial proposal for duty free shop at Thiruvananthapuram airport was opened and financial proposal submitted by the first appellant and 4th respondent resulted in tie bid as contemplated in clause 3.4.3 and clause 2.13.10 W.A.No.354 of 2016 8 of RFP. So they informed that in accordance with clause 3.4.4, revised financial proposals are invited and accordingly, fresh one bid limited tender No.1000012969 has been uploaded in AA1 e-portal. It has to be uploaded on or before the submission date i.e 3.12.2015 at 1 p.m and true copy of the e-mail sent by the third respondent inviting fresh financial proposal is produced and marked as Ext.P5.
13. According to the appellants, Ext.P5 is illegal, arbitrary and should not have been issued. It is contended that an artificial tie was created under clause 3.4.3 in order to help the fourth respondent and as per the clauses of the tender, when fractional or decimal points were added to the whole number, that tender ought to have been rejected in toto and not to exclude the decimal point alone and consider the whole number so as to make the fourth respondent a qualified bider to participate in the bid. So the action of the respondents in accepting the tender submitted by the fourth respondent and allowing them to participate in the bid is illegal and conducting further proceedings on the basis of Ext.P5 is also illegal and arbitrary and against the spirit of the tender. So the appellants filed the writ petition seeking the following reliefs.
(i) To declare that Ext.P5 is issued in violation of the tender conditions and that the bid submitted by the 4th respondent could not have been accepted since the same was W.A.No.354 of 2016 9 contrary to Clause 2.13.10 read with Clause 2.7.1 (a) of ExhibitP1;
(ii) To issue a writ of mandamus, or such other writ, order or direction to the 3rd respondent to award the concession to Develop, Operate and Maintain Duty Free Outlets at Trivandrum International Airport to Petitioner No.1, at its original financial bid of 40% revenue share;
(iii) To call for the records leading upto Ext.P5 and quash the same as being arbitrary, illegal and n violation of Ext.P1, by the issuance of a writ of certiorari or any other writ, order or direction.
14. The second and the third respondents filed counter affidavits denying the allegations made in the writ petition. According to them, the writ petition is not maintainable. As per Ext.R3(a) the license granted to M/s. Flemingo (DFS) Pvt. Ltd, the alleged subsidiary company of the first appellant, was extended till 31.3.2016 or award of new tender as per communication dated 4.11.2015, which is produced and marked as Ext.R3(a). They admitted that they floated Ext.P1 tender and thereafter issued corrigendum making some corrections and extension of time. Apart from the appellants, the fourth respondent and one agency by name GMR Airport Ltd., New Delhi submitted the tenders, who alone were qualified in the technical bid. Thereafter when the financial bid was opened, GMR Airport Ltd W.A.No.354 of 2016 10 could not succeed since they had quoted only 38% of revenue share whereas the first appellant had quoted 40% and the fourth respondent had quoted 40.06%. As per the terms of the contract, while evaluating the financial bid, the decimal points have to be ignored and whole number alone need be considered. So when the decimal point quoted by the fourth respondent was ignored, the bid submitted by the first and fourth respondents became equal namely 40%. So invoking Clause 3.4.4 of the tender, they issued Ext.P5 calling upon the appellants and the fourth respondent to submit fresh financial proposals and accordingly, they submitted their financial proposals. The appellants quoted 45% revenue share while the fourth respondent quoted 46% revenue share. The fourth respondent was thereupon selected and the contract was awarded on 6.1.2016 and it was accepted by the fourth respondent on 7.1.2016. The award contract letter dated 6.1.2016 accepting the fourth respondent as the successful bider is produced and marked as Ext.R3(b).
15. The allegation that the authorities floated the first tender in March, 2015 and thereafter it was withdrawn arbitrarily is not correct. They have issued fresh tender as they felt that they will have to get more revenue to the airport authority. So there is nothing wrong in cancelling or withdrawing the tender as no tender was W.A.No.354 of 2016 11 finalized and it was done even before the financial bid was opened. Since the corporate headquarters wanted to add/modify or amend the criteria/eligibility, this was cancelled in the month of September, 2015 itself and Ext.P1 fresh tender notice was issued. The first appellant had participated in the second tender and he had not challenged the cancellation of the earlier tender before participating in the second tender. So he is estopped from now contending that the cancellation of the earlier tender was illegal. Exts.P3 and P3(a) were necessitated only to help the prospective bidders to upload their tender since there was some technical snag in the system and so the time was extended for a very short period. No corrigendum was issued varying or altering the process of tender so as to give any undue advantage to any prospective bidder. All these corrigenda were issued prior to the opening of the tender process namely 6.11.2015. No corrigendum was subsequently issued affecting or causing prejudice to the interest or right of the tenderers including the appellants. They never intended to favour anyone.
16. The copies of the tenders submitted by the fourth respondent is produced and marked as Ext.R3(c). The appellants have not raised any objection regarding the technical qualification of the fourth respondent though the representative of the first appellant was W.A.No.354 of 2016 12 personally present at the time of scrutiny of the technical eligibility of the technical tenderers. Ext.R3(d) is the true computer copy of comparative financial proposal submitted by three bidders namely the first appellant, the fourth respondent and GMR. Since GMR had quoted only 38% of the revenue share, their tender was rejected. The fourth respondent has passed all the qualifications to get the technical eligibility and only thereafter, they were permitted to participate in the financial bid. The bidder must have three years experience during the preceding five year in duty free business at passenger transport terminal such as airport, seaport or land port notified as customs station and number of locations of duty free shops are not relevant for this purpose. There is nothing wrong in eliminating the the decimal point and accepting the tender of the fourth respondent. It is well within the power of the airport authority as per the clauses of the tender notice. After the financial proposals were accepted, notice of acceptance of contract was issued to the forth respondent and it was accepted by them. So the process has been completed and there is no illegality or arbitrariness so as to interfere in the process of by the court. So they prayed for dismissal of the application.
17. The fourth respondent also submitted a counter statement denying the allegations in the writ petition against them and also W.A.No.354 of 2016 13 justifying the process of evaluation of financial eligibility by the airport authority by conferring the contract on them. The applications submitted by them were proper and there is no arbitrariness in issuing Ext.P5 direction by respondents 2 and 3 and it is well within their power under the tender document and they also prayed for dismissal of the applications.
18. The appellants filed a reply affidavit reiterating their contentions in the writ petition and denying the allegations made in the counter affidavit filed by respondents.
19. The third respondent had produced Exts.R3(f) and (g) tender applications filed by the fourth respondent. The appellants also produced certain documents by filing petition to receive documents wherein they attempted to show that the duty free locations mentioned by the fourth respondent except Pasir Gudang are not genuine and they are not having any duty free retail shops at various ports mentioned and it is a false representation submitted by them. In the counter affidavit filed by the respondents to receive documents, they have stated that there is no misrepresentation and there is no necessity to have personal presence of persons at the place of business and the articles were sold from Pasir Gudang and it was delivered at various ports permitted by the Customs Department in the W.A.No.354 of 2016 14 presence of their officers as per the law established in that country. So they are qualified for all these places. They also filed reply affidavit to the affidavit filed in support of the application filed to receive document.
20. After considering the rival contentions and the submissions of the parties, the learned single judge dismissed the writ petition by the impugned judgment stating that there was no artificial tie created by the airport authorities so as to help the fourth respondent as contended by the appellants and the airport authority was justified in ignoring the decimal point which was in tune with Clause 3.4.3 and the other contention that they have no duty free shop experience need not be considered at this stage and dismissed the writ petition. Aggrieved by the same, the present writ appeal has been filed by the appellants.
21. Heard. Sri. Raman, learned senior counsel appearing for the appellants, Sri. Sundareshan, learned senior counsel appearing for the fourth respondent, Sri.Santharam, learned counsel appearing for respondents 2 and 3 and Sri. Nagaresh, learned Assistant Solicitor General of India appearing for the first respondent Union of India and perused the documents produced by them before the learned single judge and also before this court along with the applications filed by W.A.No.354 of 2016 15 both parties to receive the same. These applications were allowed and the documents produced were received in this appeal.
22. Learned senior counsel for the appellants submitted that the airport authority was not justified in creating an artificial tie so as to give an opportunity to the 4th respondent to participate in the financial bid. Further as per clause 2.13.10(ii), the quoted percentage of revenue share should not be less than 13% and must be a whole number only (fractional decimal of a digit is not permitted). So according to the learned senior counsel, the quoting of revenue share must be a whole number and if any decimal point is added, then it has to be treated as a defective tender and the tender ought to have been rejected. Further it is stated in clause 3.4.3 that for the purpose of financial evaluation, decimal points or fraction of a digit which is not permissible shall not be considered. Both these clauses will have to be construed harmoniously and it must be interpreted in such a way as to give more emphasis to the first clause. Otherwise the first clause will become redundant. If such an interpretation had been taken, the tender submitted by the 4th respondent ought to have been rejected by the authorities as it does not fulfill the conditions for a valid tender. If such a method was adopted, then there would not have been a tie and there would have been no necessity to issue Ext.P5 order asking for a W.A.No.354 of 2016 16 fresh financial proposal invoking clause 3.4.4 of the tender conditions. As this was done with an intention to help the 4th respondent, the authorities exercised their discretion arbitrarily against the clauses in the tender and thereby Ext.P5 is vitiated.
23. He had also argued that there was misrepresentation in submitting the bid as it was not in tune with the conditions provided in the tender notice. As per definition clause, duty free retail business means any commercial undertaking registered under the applicable laws, carrying out the activity of sale of retail items in a Free Trade Zone to ultimate consumer, but does not include any of the activities related to any stage of manufacture, import processing, packaging, storage, transportation or distribution of retail items. Further as per the definition clause, duty free retail outlets mean the duty free outlets which are designed (as approved by the authority) developed, operated and maintained by the Concessionaire Act at the location (s) in accordance with the provisions of the concession agreement for sale of duty free retail items. In the tender application, the 4th respondent had given the locations of their duty free retail outlets as Pasirgudang - passenger terminal, Johar Port, Tanjung Pelepas Port, Tanjung Penggerang Port, Tanjung Langsat Port, Belungkor Ferry Terminal, Seni International Airport, Kukup Ferry terminal, so as to make it W.A.No.354 of 2016 17 appear that they have got eight duty free retail shop outlets. Except Pasirgudang passenger terminal, it will be seen that they have no outlets and they are only distributing the items from Pasirgudang and as per the definition clause, such an income cannot be included for showing their financial capacity so as to meet the financial bid. Further the applications submitted by them were not in tune with the requirements under the conditions mentioned in the tender. They are expected to give their revenue income solely from the duty free outlet and no other income, but in the application submitted by the 4th respondent, it is mentioned that it includes that income. Further the certificates required to be produced under the terms and conditions are also not produced in compliance with the terms and conditions mentioned. Further the date of functioning of the outlets was shown as 19.1.2011, whereas that was the date of issuance of the licence and not the date of commencement of the outlets. Now they have admitted that there was no physical locations of duty free shops at the eight spots provided in the application and they were only doing the sale from Pasirgudang and they are only distributing the articles at the remaining places, which cannot be treated as a condition fulfilling the condition required for valid tender. This is a misrepresentation made by them, and as such, the same has to be rejected. That was not W.A.No.354 of 2016 18 done by the authorities.
24. The learned senior counsel also submitted that the allegation that there is no pleading in the writ petition is not correct. Though the relief was not sought for specifically, the pleadings in the writ petition will fortify these grounds and being a writ jurisdiction that can be taken into consideration for the purpose of moulding the relief so as to meet the ends of justice. Further, according to the learned senior counsel, the learned Singe Judge did not consider the disqualification points raised by the appellants as that was not required to be considered at that stage, which is not correct. If these things were properly considered by the learned Single Judge, then the decision would have been in favour of the appellants and as such the decision of the single judge is unsustainable in law and the same is liable to be set aside and the writ petition has to be allowed.
25. On the other hand, the learned senior counsel appearing for the 4th respondent submitted that a reading of the tender clauses will go to show that some of the conditions are mandatory and some of them are only declaratory nature. Further, wherever mandatory conditions were to be complied with, the consequence of non- compliance has been specifically mentioned as rejection and whereas in respect of declaratory conditions, substantial compliance is sufficient W.A.No.354 of 2016 19 and the tendering authority is the final authority which has to consider the clauses in the tender for the purpose of evaluation and the decision of the authority is final and the High Court sitting in the jurisdiction under Article 226 of the Constitution of India under the powers of Judicial Review cannot interfere with such decisions unless it is unjust, unconscionably arbitrary and shocking the conscious of the court and against the public policy and public interest. The court cannot sit on appeal and evaluate as in the case of an appellate court re- appreciating the evidence and came to a different conclusion than the conclusion arrived at by the authority and such, an exercise is not permissible under Article 226 of the Constitution of India. According to the learned senior counsel, along with the application, the 4th respondent had produced all the necessary documents which will go to show the real picture of the nature of business that is being conducted by the 4th respondent in other places other than Pasirgudang. After Ext.P5 proceedings, further proceedings have been taken by the authorities and the appellants had participated and having lost the bid, they have not challenged those proceedings seeking a relief to set aside that proceedings. So this court cannot go beyond the relief claimed, especially when that has become inconsequential due to the subsequent development happened after Ext.P5 proceedings. So W.A.No.354 of 2016 20 according to the learned senior counsel, the authority below had acted in good faith and strictly in accordance with the provisions of the tender conditions and the single judge had properly appreciated the same and rightly dismissed the writ petition.
26. Learned counsel for the airport authority as well as Union of India have more or less supported the submissions made by the learned senior counsel appearing for the 4th respondent. They have also further added that the ultimate aim of calling for global tender is to get more benefited financial bid and profit to the authority. There is nothing wrong in the evaluatory process conducted by the authorities. It is in tune with the principles of interpreting the contract clauses and author's decision is final in such cases and court cannot interfere in such discretionary, evaluatory process exercised by the authority, unless it is unreasonably arbitrary and against public interest. There is no ground made out for showing that the discretion was exercised arbitrarily by the authority and it cannot be said that it is against public interest as well. So according to the learned counsel, the Single Judge was perfectly justified in dismissing the application.
27. Before going to the legality of the order passed by the learned Single Judge, let's consider the relevant provisions in the contract. As per clause 2.2.2, to be eligible for pre-qualification and W.A.No.354 of 2016 21 short listing, a bidder shall fulfill the following conditions of eligibility (threshold eligibility criteria) a. Technical capacity. For demonstrating technical capacity and experience(technical capacity), the bidder shall satisfy each of the following criteria on the date of issue of RFP.
(i) The bidder (in the case of consortium, the lead member) must have three years experience during the preceding five years in the duty free business at passenger transport terminal such as airport, seaport or land port notified as a customs station.
b. Financial Capacity. For demonstrating financial capacity (financial capacity), the bidder shall satisfy the following criteria. The bidder must have an annual turn over of USD 23,50,400/- (US$23,50,400/-) in any of the preceding five financial years in accordance with the audited financial statement (i.e. profit and loss account and the balance sheet along with schedules) from the duty free business in India and overseas (currency conversion date should be the date of publication of RFP for this purpose).
28. Clause 2.2.3 says that the bidder shall enclose with its proposal to be submitted as per the format at form -I complete with its annexure the following.
(i) Certificate(s) from its statutory auditors or the concerned W.A.No.354 of 2016 22 client(s) stating the number of years of experience in operating duty free outlets and presence of duty free business at the customs station.
(ii) The certificate(s) from its statutory auditors stating the turn over of the bidder as at the close of preceding financial year from the business of operating duty free outlets in India or overseas. For the purpose of this RFP turn over (the turn over) shall mean the total revenue earned from the sale of duty free items to ultimate consumers less applicable to sales tax are value added tax.
29. Clause 2.3.6 and 7 says that the bidder shall be required to quote in its financial proposal in the format at Appendix(1), the percentage(%) of net sales (not below 13%) which they are willing to offer to the authority during the concession period. For the purposes of evaluation of the financial proposal, the highest quoted percentage of net sales in terms of revenue share offered to the authority during the concession period shall be the sole parameter for identification of the highest bidder.
30. Clause 2.8 deals with right to accept or reject any or all proposals. As per Clause 2.8(i), authority reserves the right to verify all statements, information and documents submitted by the bidder in response to the RFP or the bidding document and the bidder shall when so required by the authority make available all such information, W.A.No.354 of 2016 23 evidence and documents as may be necessary for such verification. Any such verification or lack of such verification by authority shall not relieve the bidder of their obligation or liability hereunder, nor will it affect any rights of the authority thereunder.
31. Clause 2.8.3 says that the authority reserves the right to reject any proposal and appropriate the Earnest Money deposit (EMD) if (a) at any time, a material misrepresentation is made or uncover or
(b) The bidder does not provide within the time specified by authority, the supplemental information/documents sought by the authority for evaluation of the proposal. If such disqualification/ rejection occurs after the proposal have been opened and the highest bidder gets disqualified/rejected, then the authority reserves the right to take any such measure as may be deemed fit in the sole discretion of the authority including annulment of the bidding process. If the bidder is a consortium, then the entire consortium may be disqualified/rejected.
32. Clause 2.8.4 says, in case it is found during evaluation or any time before signing the concession agreement or after its execution and during the period of subsistence thereof, that one or more of the eligibility conditions have not been met by the bidder or the bidder has made material misrepresentation or has given any W.A.No.354 of 2016 24 materially incorrect or false information, the bidder shall be disqualified forthwith if not appointed as a concessionaire either by issue the LOIA or has entered into a concession agreement and if the selected bidder/ SPV has already been issued the LOIA or has entered into concession agreement as a case may be, the same shall, notwithstanding anything to the contrary contained therein or in this RFP, be liable to be terminated by a communication in writing by authority to the selected bidder. In such an event, the authority shall be entitled to forfeit and appropriate earnest money deposit or security deposit, as the case may be as damages without prejudice to any other right or remedy that may be available to the authority under RFP, the bidding documents/ the concession agreement or under the applicable law.
33. Clause 2.13.9 says the financial proposal shall be as per format prescribed in appendix(i).
34. Clause 2.13.10 says as follows:
2.13.10. While preparing the Financial Bid, Bidders should ensure the following conditions are satisfied.
(i) The Minimum Annual Guarantee (MAG) for the first concession year shall be no less than USD 23,50,400/- Per Annum as fixed by the authority.
(ii) The quoted percentage of revenue share should not be less W.A.No.354 of 2016 25 than 13% and must be a whole number only (Fraction or decimal of a digit is not permitted)
35. Clause 3.1.7 says that prior to evaluation of Technical Proposals, Authority shall determine whether each Proposal is accompanied by Earnest Money Deposit in the form and manner as specified in this RFP. A proposal not accompanied by the Earnest Money Deposit shall be summarily rejected by Authority and would not be taken up for further evaluation.
36. Clause 3.2 and 3.3 deal with preliminary scrutiny and evaluation of technical proposals and Clause 3.2.2. says Authority reserves the right to reject any Proposal which is non-responsive and no request for alteration, modification, substitution or withdrawal shall be entertained by Authority in respect of such Proposals. In the preliminary scrutiny there are three items mentioned. Clause 3.2.1 deals with conditions which are mandatory to be accompanied. Clause 3.3 deals with evaluation of technical proposal and only after qualified in the evaluation of technical proposal, the qualified bidders will go for the next financial proposal.
37. Clause 3.4 deals with evaluation of financial proposals. Clause 3.4.2 says that the financial proposals shall be evaluated on the basis of the highest quoted revenue share, which shall remain fixed for W.A.No.354 of 2016 26 the entire concession term. The bidder offering the highest percentage (more than 13%) revenue shall be declared the selected bidder. Clause 3.4.3 says that for the purpose of evaluation, decimals points or fraction of a digit, which is not permissible, shall not be considered. Clause 3.4.4 says that in the event that financial proposal of two or more bidders are found to be the same (the "tie bidders"), Authority shall invite fresh financial proposals from such Tie Bidders and shall identify the Selected Bidder from amongst such Tie Bidders. Provided that the revised Financial Proposals of such Tie Bidders, shall be no less favourable to Authority than their respective original Proposals. Clause 3.5 deals with contacts during proposal evaluation where it is stated that the proposal shall be deemed to be under consideration immediately after they are opened and until such time authority makes official intimation of award/rejection to the Bidders. While the proposals are under consideration, Bidder and/or their representatives or other interested parties are advised to refrain, save and except as required under the Bidding documents, from contacting by any means, Authority and/or their employees/representatives on matters related to the proposals under consideration.
38. Clause 6 of the tender notice deals with fraud and corrupt practices which lead to the disqualification of the bidders and clause W.A.No.354 of 2016 27 6.3.(d) defines undesirable practice means (1) establishing contact with any person connected with or employed or engaged by the Authority with the objective of canvassing lobbying or in any manner influencing or attempting to influence the bidding process; or (ii) having a conflict of interest. Clause (b) of that clause says fraudulent practice means a misrepresentation or omission of facts or suppression of facts or disclosure of incomplete facts, in order to influence the bidding process.
39. Let us also consider the precedents regarding the interpretation of clauses in the case of contract and also the scope of judicial review on this aspect before going to the facts of the case.
40. In the decision reported in M/s. Poddar Steel Corporation v. M/s.Ganesh Engineering Worksand others (1991 (3) SCC 273) it has been held that :
It is true that in submitting its tender, accompanied by a cheque of the Union Bank of India and not of the State Bank, clause No.6 of the tender notice was not obeyed literally, but the question is as to whether the said noncompliance deprived the Diesel Locomotive Works of the authority to accept the bid. As a matter of general proposition, it cannot be held that an authority inviting tenders is bound to give effect to every term mentioned in the notice in meticulous detail, and W.A.No.354 of 2016 28 is not entitled to waive even a technical irregularity of little or no significance. The requirements in a tender notice can be classified into two categories those which lay down the essential conditions of eligibility and the others which are merely ancillary or subsidiary with the main object to be achieved by the condition. In the first case, the authority issuing the tender may be required to enforce them rigidly. In the other cases it must be open to the authority to deviate from and not to insist upon the strict literal compliance of the condition in appropriate cases. This aspect was examined by this Court in G.J. Fernandez v. State of Karnataka (1990(2) SCC 488) :(AIR 1990 SC
958), a case dealing with tenders. Although not in an entirely identical siltation as the present one, the observations in the judgment support our view. The High Court has in the impugned decision, relied upon Ramana Dayaram Shetty v. International Airport Authority of India (1979 (3) SCC 489) :(AIR 1979 SC 1628), but has failed to appreciate that the reported case belonged to the first category where the strict compliance of the condition could be insisted upon. The authority in that case, by not insisting upon the requirement in the tender notice which was an essential condition of eligibility, bestowed a favour on one of the bidders, which amounted to illegal discrimination. The judgment indicates that the Court closely examined W.A.No.354 of 2016 29 the nature of the condition which had been relaxed and its impact before answering the question whether it would have validly condoned the shortcoming in the tender in question. This part of the judgment demonstrates the difference between the two categories of the conditions discussed above. However it remains to be seen as to which of the two clauses the present case belongs.
41. The nature of payment by a certified cheque was considered by this court in Sita Ram Jhunjhunwala v. Bombay Bullion Association Ltd., (1965) 35 Com Cas 526 (AIR 1965 SC 1628) Several objections were taken there in support of the plea that the necessary condition in regard to payment was not satisfied and in that context, this court quoted the observations from judgment in an English decision (vide Spargo's case (1873) L.R.8 Ch.App.407) that it is a general rule of law that in every case where a transaction resolves itself into paying money by A to B and then handling it back again by B to A if the parties meet together and agree to set one demand against the other, they need not go through the form and ceremony of handing the money backwards and forwards. This court applied the observations to a transaction requiring payment by one to another. The High Court's decisions in B.D. Yadav's case (AIR 1984 Bombay
351) and T.V. Subhadra Amma's case (AIR 1982 Ker 81) are also W.A.No.354 of 2016 30 illustrations where literal compliance of every term of the tender notice was not insisted upon. So in that case the Supreme Court has held that merely because instead of DD of a particular bank insisted in the tender notice DD of another bank was given is not a condition to be literally interpreted so as to end in rejection of the tender and it was held to be a substantial compliance and that will be sufficient compliance of the conditions of the tender.
42. In the decision reported in Export Credit Guarantee Corporation of India Ltd. v. Garg Sons International (2014 (1) SCC 686) while considering the question as to how the clauses in the contract have to be interpreted (invoking dictum of judicial review), it has been held that:
"It is not permissible for the court to substitute the terms of the contract itself, under the garb of construing terms incorporated in the agreement of insurance. No exceptions can be made on the ground of equity. The liberal attitude adopted by the court, by way of which it interferes in the terms of an insurance agreement, is not permitted. The same must certainly not be extended to he extent of substituting words that were never intended to form a part of the agreement. The endeavour of the court should always be to interpret the words used in the contract in the manner that will best express the intention of the parties. " W.A.No.354 of 2016 31
43. In the same decision it has been held that:
"The insured cannot claim anything more than what is covered by the insurance policy. The terms of the contract have to be construed strictly, without altering the nature of the contract as the same may affect the interests of the parties adversely. The clauses of an insurance policy have to be read as they are. Consequently, the terms of the insurance policy, that fix the responsibility of the insurance company must also be read strictly The contract must be read as a whole and every attempt should be made to harmonize the terms thereof keeping in mind that the rule of contra proferentem does not apply in case of commercial contract, for the reason that a clause in a commercial contract is bilateral and has mutually been agreed upon".
44. The same principle has been reiterated in the earlier decisions reported in Suraj Mal Ram Niwas Oil Mills (P) Ltd. v. United India Insurance Co. Ltd (2010 (10) SCC 567), Oriental Insurance Co. Ltd v. Sony Cheriyan (1999 (6) SCC 451), Polymat India (P) Ltd. v. National Insurance Co. Ltd (2005 (9) SCC 174), Sumitomo Heavy Industries Ltd. v. ONGC Ltd., (2010 (11) SCC
296) Rashtriya Ispat Nigam Ltd. v. Dewan Chand Ram Saran (2012 (5) SCC 306), Vikram Greentech (I) Ltd. v. New India Assurance Co. Ltd. (2009 (5) SCC 599) and Sikka Papers Ltd v. W.A.No.354 of 2016 32 National Insurance Co.Ltd (2009 (7) SCC 777). So it is clear from the above decisions that it is not permissible for the court to substitute the terms of the contract itself, under the grab of construing terms incorporated in the agreement of insurance. No exceptions can be made on the ground of equity. The liberal attitude adopted by the court, by way of which it interferes in the terms of an insurance agreement, is not permitted. The same must certainly not be extended to the extent of substituting words that were never intended to form a part of the agreement.
45. In the decision reported in W.B. State Electricity Board v. Patel Engineering Co. Ltd and Others (2001(2) SCC 431), it has been held that:
"The mistakes/errors in question, it is stated, are unintentional and occurred due to the fault of the computer termed as "a repetitive systematic computer typographical transmission failure". It is difficult to accept this contention. A mistake may be unilateral or mutual but it is always unintentional. If it is intentional, it ceases to be a mistake. Here the mistakes may be unintentional but it was not beyond the control of Respondents 1 to 4 to correct the same before submission of the bid. Had they been vigilant in W.A.No.354 of 2016 33 checking the bid documents before their submission, the mistakes would have been avoided. Further, correction of such mistakes after one-and-a-half months of opening of the bids will also be violative of clauses 24.1,24.3 and 29.1 of the ITB".
46. Further in the same decision certain exceptions were carved out in this regard, which have been enumerated in paragraph 27 of the judgment which reads as follows:
"27.Exceptions to the above general principle of seeking relief in equity on the ground of mistake as can be culled out from the same para, are:
(1) Where the mistake might have been avoided by exercise of ordinary care and diligence on the part of the bidder; but where the offeree of the bid has or is deemed to have knowledge of the mistake , he cannot be permitted to take advantage of such mistake.
(2) Where the bidder on discovery of the mistake fails to act promptly in informing to the authority concerned and request for rectification, withdrawal or cancellation of bid on the ground of clerical mistake is not made before opening of all the bids.
(3) Where the bidder fails to follow the rules and regulations set forth in the advertisement for bids as to the time when bidders may withdraw their offer; however where the mistake is discovered after opening of bids, the bidder may be W.A.No.354 of 2016 34 permitted to withdraw the bid. "
47. In the same decision it has been held that:
"The mode of execution of the work of the Project should also ensure that the public interest is best served. Tenders are invited on the basis of competitive bidding for execution of the work of the Project as it serves dual purposes. On the one hand it offers a fair opportunity to all those who are interested in competing for the contract relating to execution of the work and, on the other hand it affords the appellant a choice to select the best of the competitors on a competitive price without prejudice to the quality of the work. Above all, it eliminates favouritism and discrimination in awarding public works to contractors. The contract is, therefore, awarded normally to the lowest tenderer which is in public interest. The principle of awarding contract to the lowest tenderer applies when all things are equal. It is equally in public interest to adhere to the rules and conditions subject to which bids are invited. Merely because a bid is the lowest the requirements of compliance with the rules and conditions cannot be ignored.
As the bid documents of Respondents 1 to 4 stand without correction there will be inherent inconsistency between the particulars given in the annexure and the total bid amount, they cannot be directed to be considered along with the other bids on the sole ground of being the lowest". W.A.No.354 of 2016 35
48. Further it has been observed that:
"We find no force in the submission that as under clause 14.2 items against which no rate or price is entered by the bidder will not be paid by the employer when executed and shall be deemed covered by the other rates and prices in the bill of quantities, the unit price in items containing errors be ignored and the bid be considered on the basis of the total price bid which is the lowest. In our view, there is a basic distinction between a case where against some items no rates or prices are quoted and a case where some rate is quoted. Whereas in the former case the bidder will not be entitled to claim any specific amount for the work done by him in the absence of any rate for that work, because in the aforementioned clause it is clarified that the bidders will not be paid by the employer and that the execution of the work shall be deemed covered by other rates and prices in the bill of quantities, but in the latter case the bidder will be entitled to claim for the work executed on the basis of quoted price/rate".
49. It was a case where apart from quoting the price, unit rate was also provided and merely because an additional provision was made in the bid document, if it is otherwise complied with the other conditions, merely because unit price was merely additionally quoted will not ipso facto invalidate the bid.
W.A.No.354 of 2016 36
50. In the decision reported in Bank of India v. K.Mohandas (2009)5 SCC 313, it has been held that the true construction of a contract must depend upon the import of the words used and not upon what the parties choose to say after words. Nor does subsequent conduct of parties in the performance of the contract affect the true effect of the clear and unambiguous words used in the contract. The intention of the parties must be ascertained from the language they have used considering the light of the surrounding circumstances and the object of the contract. The nature and purpose of the contract is an important guide in ascertaining the intention of the parties.
51. In the decision reported in Ottoman Bank of Nocosia v. Ohanes Chakarian (AIR 1938 PC 26), Lord Wright made these weighty observations " that if the contract is clear and unambiguous, its true effect cannot be changed merely by the course of conduct adopted by the parties in acting under it". In the decision reported Ganga Saran v. Firm Ram Charan Ram Gopal (AIR 1952 SC 9), the four judges bench of the Supreme Court stated, "since the true construction of an agreement must depend upon the import of the words used and not upon what the parties choose to say afterwards, it is unnecessary to refer to what the parties have said about it." It is also a well recognized principle of construction of a contract that it W.A.No.354 of 2016 37 must be read as a whole in order to ascertain the true meaning of its several clauses and the words of each clause should be interpreted so as to bring them into harmony with the other provisions if that interpretation does no violence to the meaning of which they are naturally susceptible. This was so held in the decision reported in North Eastern Railway Co. v. Lord Hastings [1900 AC 260:(1900-03) All ER Rep. 199 (HL)]. It has been so held in the above decision that the fundamental position is that it is the banks who are responsible for formulation of the terms in the contractual scheme that the optees of voluntary retirement under that scheme will be eligible to pension under the Pension Regulations, 1995 and, therefore, they bear the risk of lack of clarity, if any. It is a well-known principle of construction of a contract that if the terms applied by one party are unclear, an interpretation against that party is preferred (verba chartarum fortius accipiuntur contra proferentem).
52. In the decision reported in Indian Railway Catering Corporation Ltd., and Another v. Doshion veolia water solutions Pvt. Ltd., (2010(13) SCC 364), it has been held that unless the offer of rebate or discount is in breach of the clear stipulations in the notice inviting tenders, it cannot be held that such offer is in breach of essential terms and conditions of the notice inviting tender. Absence of W.A.No.354 of 2016 38 any express stipulation in tender documents prohibiting tenderer from quoting a discount on price offered by him, it cannot be said that the tender is bad. Further in the same decision it has been observed that language of clause 1 and 2 of the note quoted above is clear that price quoted are to be lumpsum inclusive of all duties and taxes etc., and the vendor should indicate total excess duty amount included in the prizes for plants and equipments. The note does not indicate the consequences that will follow if the vendor does not indicate the total excise duty amount included in the prize of plants and equipments. The note does not say that if the vendor does not indicate the total excise duty amount included in the prize for plants and equipments, the offer of the vendor shall be rejected. Hence the recommendations of the tender committee accepting authority did not find deviation from task two of the note very material and accepted offer of the bidder, the Hight Court should not have held that it committed a breach on an essential term by not mentioning excise duty amount in rupees in its offer. It has been held in the decision that if the clause or note does not mention about the consequence of non-compliance or mis- compliance of the clause will end in rejection, then it can only be said that it is only obligatory and not mandatory. The authorities will have the power to consider the same if there is substantial compliance of W.A.No.354 of 2016 39 the terms and conditions of the tender complied by the offeree.
53. In the decision reported in B.S.N. Joshi and Sons Ltd., v. Nair Coal Services Ltd., and Others (2006) 11 SCC 548), the Supreme Court has considered the scope of judicial review in the matter of accepting tender and summarized the principles as follows in Para 66 of the Judgment, which reads as follows:
66. We are also not shutting our eyes towards the new principles of judicial review which are being developed; but the law as it stands now having regard to the principles laid down in the aforementioned decisions may be summarised as under:
(i) if there are essential conditions, the same must be adhered to;
(ii) if there is no power of general relaxation, ordinarily the same shall not be exercised and the principle of strict compliance would be applied where it is possible for all the parties to comply with all such conditions fully;
(iii) if, however, a deviation is made in relation to all the parties in regard to any of such conditions, ordinarily again a power of relaxation may be held to be existing;
(iv) the parties who have taken the benefit of such relaxation should not ordinarily be allowed to take a different stand in relation to compliance with another part of tender contract, particularly when he was also not in a position to comply with all the conditions of tender fully, unless the court otherwise finds relaxation of a condition which being essential in nature could not be relaxed and thus the same was wholly illegal and without jurisdiction;
(v) when a decision is taken by the appropriate authority upon due consideration of the tender document submitted by all the tenderers on their own merits and if it is ultimately found that successful bidders had in fact substantially complied with the purport and object for which essential conditions were laid down, the same may not ordinarily be interfered with;
(vi) the contractors cannot form a cartel. If despite the same, their bids are considered and they are given an offer to match with the rates quoted by the lowest tenderer, public interest would be given priority;
(vii) where a decision has been taken purely on public interest, the court ordinarily should exercise judicial restraint. W.A.No.354 of 2016 40
54. Further in the same decision in Paragraph 69, it has been held that while saying so however we would like to observe that having regard to the fact that huge public money is involved, a public sector undertaking in view of the principles of the good corporate governance may accept such tenders which are economically beneficial to it. It may be true that essential terms of contract were required to be fulfilled. If a party failed and of/neglected to comply with the requisite condition which are essential for consideration of its case by the employer, it cannot supply the details at a later stage or quote a lower rate upon ascertaining the rate quoted by others. Whether an employer has power of relaxation must be found out, not only from the terms of the notice inviting tender but also the general practice prevailing in India, for the said purpose, the court may consider the practice prevailing in the past, keeping in view of a particular object if in effect of substance, it is found that the offer made by one of the bidders substantially satisfies the requirements of the condition of notice inviting tender, the employer may be said to have general power of relaxation in that behalf. Once such power is exercised, one of the questions which would arise for consideration by the superior courts would be as to whether the exercise of such power was reasonable, fair and bonafide. If the answer thereto is not in the W.A.No.354 of 2016 41 negative, save and except for sufficient and cogent reasons writ, courts would be well advised to refrain themselves in exercise of their discretionary jurisdiction.
55. The same view has been reiterated in the decision reported in Air India Ltd., v. Cochin International Airport and others and connected cases (2000) 2 SCC 617), where it has been held that though the decision of the public body or State in the case of acceptance of tender is not amenable to judicial review, the court can examine the decision making process and interfere if it is found vitiated by malafides, unreasonable and arbitrariness. The State, its corporations and instrumentalities and agencies have the pubic duty to be fair to all concern. Even when some defect is found in the decision making process, the court must exercise its discretionary power under Article 226 of the Constitution of India with great caution and should exercise it only in furtherance of public interest and not merely on the making out of legal point. The court should always keep the larger public interest in mind in order to decide whether its intervention is called for or not. Only when it comes to a conclusion that overwhelming public interest requires interference, the court should intervene.
56. Further in the decision reported in Michigan Rubber W.A.No.354 of 2016 42 (India) Ltd., v. State of Karnataka and Others [2012(8) SCC 216], it has been held that in the case of Government contracts and auctions, interference by court is not warranted, unless action of tendering authority is mala fide and is a mis-use of statutory power, nor would court to interfere because it feels some other terms in the tender would have been fairer, wiser and more logical. Certain pre- conditions or qualifications of tenders have to be laid down to ensure that contractor has capacity and recourse to successfully execute the work. Further in the same decision, it has been held that in the matter of formulating conditions of the tender document and awarding a contract, greater latitude is required to be conceded to the State authorities unless the action of tendering authority is found to be malicious and misuse of its statutory powers, interference of courts is not warranted.
57. The scope of judicial review in such matters has been considered by the Apex Court in the above decision in Paragraph 16, 17, 18 and 19 of the judgment which reads as follows:
16. In response thereto by a letter dated 16.3.2005 the Assistant Provident Fund Commissioner informed the appellant that:
"After verifying our records we hereby confirm that M/s.B.S.N.Joshi & Sons Ltd., has paid provident fund contributions for more that 100 persons for the period from March 2004 to February 2005 and deposited provident fund amounts.
The above letter is issued at the request of M/s.B.S.N.Joshi & Sons Ltd."
W.A.No.354 of 2016 43
17. In regard to the purported violation of condition 1.5(vii), it was submitted that the appellant had never been declared to be a defaulter. Only because certain disputes were pending by and between the appellant and the Madhya Pradesh State Electricity Board and some recovery proceedings had been initiated by the latter, the same would not mean that it was a declared defaulter. According to the appellant, no hearing was given to it by the Madhya Pradesh State Electricity Board, prior to passing of an order declaring it to be a defaulter, which was sine qua non therefor. It was further contended that the Board of Directors of Mahagenco took into consideration each of the documents filed by each of the tenderers scrupulously and opined that keeping in view the rates quoted by the appellant, acceptance thereof would be in the interest of the Board, as thereby it would save about Rs.52 crores and in that view of the matter it was improper on the part of the High Court to interfere therewith in exercise of its power of judicial review under Article 226 of the Constitution of India.
18. Mr.Vivek Tankha, learned senior counsel appearing on behalf of the writ petitioner -respondents, on the other hand, would contend that each of the nine conditions laid down in the notice inviting tender were pre-requisites for the tenderers being considered therefore, They, being imperative in character, could under no circumstances be relaxed. If the Board keeping in view the magnitude of the contract intended to have an experienced contractor who had not only handled specified quantity of coal but also had sufficient personnel on its roll and / or must not necessarily be a defaulter vis-a-vis any other public sector undertaking, no exception thereto could be taken and the appellant, thus, necessarily was required to comply with each of the said conditions. In regard to modification of Condition 1.5(ii) from calender year to financial year, it was urged that such deviation was permissible in law.
19. Mr.Tankha would submit that in regard to the violation of condition 1.5(v) not only more than 100 persons should have been on the roll of the appellant during the period April to March in the financial year 2003-04, but it was also required to file proof of payment of provident fund for the preceding year. The learned counsel contended that from the records produced by the appellant, it would appear that whereas at the first instance, it filed proof of payment of the employees' provident fund for a few persons, it later on furnished supplementary challans on 7.3.2005 so as to raise the number of employees to more than 100. The Board, according to learned counsel, overlooked this fact and purported to have relaxed the condition, which power it did not have. In regard to the finding of the High Court that the appellant was a declared defaulter, it was contended that the expression W.A.No.354 of 2016 44 "declared" would merely mean to make it known that a huge amount was payable to the Madhya Pradesh State Electricity Board, and furthermore, the same was required to be considered having regard to the fact the when in relation to such a contract dated 17.4.2005 the case of the appellant was not considered, it filed a writ petition before the Madhya Pradesh High Court, which was dismissed, inter alia, on the ground that it was a defaulter. The letters patent appeal filed there against having also been dismissed by the Madhya Pradesh High Court, the appellant must be held to have been declared a defaulter by the High Court itself.
58. So it is clear from the above decisions that it is not always necessary for the courts, invoking the power under Article 226 of the constitution of India, to interfere with the action of the Governmental authorities in accepting the tender or contracts exercising the power of judicial review, merely because there are some relaxations made by the instrumentalities of the State, unless it is satisfied to the conscious of the court that it is arbitrary and against public interest and it was done with the malicious intention to help some person against the norms of the contract.
59. The same view has been reiterated in the decision reported in Jagdish Mandal v. State of Orissa and Others and connected cases [(2007) 14 SCC 517]. The scope of judicial review of award of contract has been considered by the Apex Court in paragraph 21 of the above judgment which reads as follows:
Scope of judicial review award of contracts
21. We may refer to some of the decisions of this Court, which have dealt with the scope of judicial review of award of contracts. W.A.No.354 of 2016 45 21.1. In sterling Computers Ltd., v. M.& N Publications Ltd., this Court observed (SCC p.458, para 18) "18. While exercising the power of judicial review, in respect of contracts entered into on behalf of the State, the court is concerned primarily as to whether there has been any infirmity in the 'decision-making process' .... the courts can certainly examine whether 'decision-making process' was reasonable, rational, not arbitrary and violative of Article 14 of the Constitution." 21.2. In Tata Cellular v. Union of India this court referred to the limitations relating to the scope of judicial review of administrative decisions and exercise of powers in awarding contracts, thus: (SCC pp.687-88 para 94) "(1) The modern trend points to judicial restraint in administrative action.
(2) The court does not sit as a court of appeal but merely reviews the manner in which the decision was made.
(3) The court does not have the expertise to correct the administrative action. If a review of the administrative decision is permitted it will be substituting its own decision, without the necessary expertise which itself may be fallible.
(4) The terms of the invitation to tender cannot be open to judicial scrutiny because the invitation to tender is in the realm of contract. ... More often than not, such decisions are made qualitatively by experts.
(5) The Government must have freedom of contract. In other words, a fair play in the joints is a necessary concomitant for an administrative body functioning in an administrative sphere or quasi-administrative sphere. However, the decision must not only be tested by the application of Wednesbury principle of reasonableness (including its other facts pointed out above) but must be free from arbitrariness not affected by bias or actuated by mala fides.
(6) Quashing decisions may impose heavy administrative burden on the administration and lead to increased and unbudgeted expenditure." (emphasis in original) This court also noted that there are inherent limitations in the exercise of power of judicial review of contractual powers. This court also observed that the duty to act fairly will vary in extent, depending upon the nature of cases, to which the said principle is sought to be applied. This court field that the State has the right to refuse the lowest or any other tender, provided it tries to get the best person or the best quotation, and the power to choose is not exercised for any collateral purpose or in infringement of Article 14.
21.3. In Raunaq International Ltd. v. I.V.R. Construction Ltd. this court dealt with the matter in some detail. This court W.A.No.354 of 2016 46 held: (SCC pp.500-01 paras 9-11) "9. The award of a contract, whether it is by a private party or by a public body or the State, is essentially a commercial transaction. In arriving at a commercial decision, considerations which are of paramount importance are commercial considerations. These would be:
(1) the price at which the other side is willing to do the work;
(2) whether the goods or services offered are of the requisite specifications;
(3) whether the person tendering has the ability to deliver the goods or services as per specifications. When large works contracts involving engagement of substantial manpower or requiring specific skills are to be offered, the financial ability of the tenderer to fulfil the requirements of the job is also important;
(4) the ability of the tenderer to deliver goods or services or to do the work of the requisite standard and quality;
(5) past experience of the tenderer, and whether he has successfully completed similar work earlier;
(6) time which will be taken to deliver the goods or services; and often (7) the ability of the tenderer to take follow-up action, rectify defects to give post-contract services.
Even when the State or a public body enters into a commercial transaction, considerations which would prevail in its decision to award the contract to a given party would be the same. However, because the State or a public body or an agency of the State enters into such a contract, there could be, in a given case, an element of public law or public interest involved even in such a commercial transaction.
10. What are these elements of public interest? (1) Public money would be expended for the purposes of the contract. (2) The goods or services which are being commissioned could be for a public purpose, such as, construction of roads, public buildings, power plants or other public utilities. (3) The public would be directly interested in the timely fulfillment of the contract so that the services become available to the public expeditiously. (4) The public would also be interested in the quality of the work undertaken or goods supplied by the tenderer. Poor quality of work or goods can lead to tremendous public hardship and substantial financial outlay either in correcting mistakes or in rectifying defects or even at times in redoing the entire work-thus involving larger outlays of public money and delaying the availability of services, facilities or goods, e.g. a delay in commissioning a power project, as in the present case, could lead to power shortages, retardation of industrial development, hardship to the general public and substantial cost escalation.
22. When a writ petition is filed in the High Court W.A.No.354 of 2016 47 challenging the award of a contract by a public authority or the State, the court must be satisfied that there is some element of public interest involved in entertaining such a petition. If, for example, the dispute is purely between two tenderers, the court must be very careful to see if there is any element of public interest involved in the litigation. A mere difference in the prices offered by the two tenderers may or may not be decisive in deciding whether any public interest is involved in intervening in such a commercial transaction. It is important to bear in mind that by court intervention, the proposed project may be considerably delayed thus escalating the cost far more than any saving which the court would ultimately effect in public money by deciding the dispute in favour of one or the other tenderer. Therefore unless the court is satisfied that there is a substantial amount of public interest or the transaction is entered into mala fide, the court should not intervene under Article 226 in disputes between two rival tenderers."
21.4 In Air India Ltd. v. Cochin International Airport Ltd., this court summarized the scope of interference as enunciated in several earlier decisions thus:(SCC pp. 623-24 para 7) "7. ...... The award of a contract, whether it is by a private party or by a public body or the State, is essentially a commercial transaction. In arriving at a commercial decision considerations which are paramount are commercial considerations. The State can choose its own method to arrive at a decision. It can fix its own terms of invitation to tender and that is not open to judicial scrutiny. It can enter into negotiations before finally deciding to accept one of the offers made to it. Price need not always be the sole criterion for awarding a contract. It is free to grant any relaxation, for bona fide reasons, if the tender conditions permit such a relaxation. It may not accept the offer even though it happens to be the highest or the lowest. But the State, its corporations, instrumentalities and agencies are bound to adhere to the norms, standards and procedures laid down by them and cannot depart from them arbitrarily. Though that decision is not amenable to judicial review, the court can examine the decision- making process and interfere if it is found vitiated by mala fies, unreasonableness and arbitrariness. The State, its corporations, instrumentalities and agencies have the public duty to be fair to all concerned. Even when some defect is found in the decision- making process the court must exercise its discretionary power under Article 226 with great caution and should exercise it only in furtherance of public interest and not merely on the making out of a legal point. The court should always keep the larger public interest in mind in order to decide whether its interventions is called for or not. Only when it comes to a conclusion that overwhelming public interest requires interference, the could should intervene." (emphasis supplied) W.A.No.354 of 2016 48 21.5. In Assn. of Registration Plates v. Union of India this court held: (SCC p.700, para 43) "43. .... Article 14 of the Constitution Prohib: The Government from arbitrarily choosing a contractor at its will and pleasure. It has to act reasonably, fairly and in public interest in awarding contract. AT the same time, no person can claim a fundamental right to carry on business with the Government. All that he can claim is that in competing for the contract, he should not be unfairly treated and discriminated, to the detriment of public interest."
21.6. In B.S.N. Joshi & Sons Ltd., v. Nair Coal Services Ltd., this court observed: (SCC p.568, para 56) "56. It may be true that a contract need not be given to the lowest tenderer but it is equally true that the employer is that best judge therefor; the same ordinarily being within its domain, court's interference in such matter should be minimal. The High Court's jurisdiction in such matters being limited in a case of this nature, the court should normally exercise judicial restraint unless illegality or arbitrariness on the part of the employer is apparent on the face of the record."
22.Judicial review of administrative action is intended to prevent arbitrariness, irrationality, unreasonableness, bias and mala fides. Its purpose is to check whether choice or decision is made "lawfully" and not to check whether choice or decision is "sound". When the power of judicial review is invoked in matters relating to tenders or award of contracts certain special features should be borne in mind. A contract is a commercial transaction. Evaluating tenders and awarding contracts are essentially commercial functions. Principles of equity and natural justice stay at a distance. if the decision relating to award of contract is bona fide and is in public interest courts will not in exercise of power of judicial review interfere even if a procedural aberration or error in assessment or prejudice to a tenderer, is made out. The power of judicial review will not be permitted to be invoked to protect private interest at the cost of public interest, or to decide contractual disputes. The tenderer or contractor with a grievance can always seek damages in a civil court. Attempts by unsuccessful tenderers with imaginary grievances, wounded pride and business rivalry, to make mountains out of molehills of some technical/procedural violation or some prejudice to self, and persuade courts to interfere by exercising power of judicial review should be resisted. Such interferences, either interim or final, may hold up public works for years, or delay relief and succour to thousands and millions and may increase the project cost manifold. Therefore, a court before interfering in tender or contractual matters in exercise of power of judicial review, should pose to itself the following questions:
W.A.No.354 of 2016 49
(i) Whether the process adopted or decision made by the authority is mala fide or intended to favour someone; or Whether the process adopted or decision made is so arbitrary and irrational that the court can say: "the decision is such that no responsible authority acting reasonably and in accordance with relevant law could have reached."
(ii) Whether public interest is affected.
If the answers are in the negative, there should be no interference under Article 226. Cases involving blacklisting or imposition of penal consequences on a tenderer/contractor or distribution of State largesse (allotment of sites/shops, grant of licences, dealerships and franchises) stand on a different footing as they may require a higher degree of fairness in action.
60. That was a case where instead of furnishing earnest money in a particular mode, another mode was preferred by the tenderer and the authorities have accepted the same stating that there is substantial compliance and in such circumstances the Apex Court has held that there is substantial compliance and there is no consequences provided for doing such things. In such circumstances, it can be deemed only as a obligatory one and not mandatory direction, resulting in rejecting of the tender.
61. In the decision reported in Air India Ltd v. Cochin International Airport Ltd and others and connected cases (2000 (2) SCC 617) while considering the question of evaluation made by the evaluation committee and giving award of contract, how far the court can interfere in such cases invoking Article 226 of the Constitution of India, in Paragraphs 7, 8, 11 and 12 of the judgment it has been held as follows:
W.A.No.354 of 2016 50
"7. The law relating to award of a contract by the State, its corporations and bodies acting as instrumentalities and agencies of the Government has been settled by the decision of this Court in Ramana Dayaram Shetty v. International Airport Authority of India, Fertilizer Corpn. Kamgar Union (Regd.) v. Union of India, CCE v. Dunlop India Ltd., Tata Cellular v. Union of India, Ramniklal N. Bhutta v. State of Maharashtra and Raunaq International Ltd. v. I.V.R. Construction Ltd. The award of a contract, whether it is by a private party or by a public body or the State, is essentially a commercial transaction. In arriving at a commercial decision considerations which are paramount are commercial considerations. The State can choose its own method to arrive at a decision. It can fix its own terms of invitation to tender and that is not open to judicial scrutiny. It can enter into negotiations before finally deciding to accept one of the offers made to it. Price need not always be the sole criterion for awarding a contract. It is free to grant any relaxation, for bonafide reasons, if the tender conditions permit such a relaxation. It may not accept the offer even though it happens to be the highest or the lowest. But the State, its corporations, instrumentalities and agencies are bound to adhere to the norms, standards and procedures laid down by them and cannot depart from them arbitrarily. Though that decision is W.A.No.354 of 2016 51 not amenable to judicial review, the court can examine the decision making process and interfere if it is found vitiated by mala fies, unreasonableness and arbitrariness. The State, its corporations, instrumentalities and agencies have the public duty to be fair to all concerned. Even when some defect is found in the decision-making process the court must exercise its discretionary power under Article 226 with great caution and should exercise it only in furtherance of public interest and not merely on the making out of a legal point. The court should always keep the large public interest in mind in order to decide whether its intervention is called for or not. Only when it comes to a conclusion that overwhelming public interest requires interference the court should intervene.
8. In view of this settled legal position, Mr.Andhyarujina, learned Senior Counsel appearing for Cambatta rightly and fairly did not dispute that CIAL was not bound to accept the highest offer or that it was entitled to enter into negotiations with Air India. What he contended was that CIAL ought to have treated all the tenderers fairly. As Air India was given an opportunity to give a presentation and revise its offer it ought to have given a chance to Cambatta also to have its say with respect to the offer made by Air India and to match its offer with the offer of Air India. He submitted that the Evaluation Committee had recommended Cambatta for awarding the W.A.No.354 of 2016 52 contract after considering all the relevant factors and, therefore, it was incumbent upon the Board of Directors to disclose why they differed from the said recommendation an decided to accept the offer of Air India. He also submitted that the decision of CIAL was vitiated because of the influence exercised by Air India and the Ministry of Civil Aviation and also because it took into consideration an irrelevant consideration that Air India is a public sector undertaking and a national carrier."
62. The Supreme Court has further held in the above decision that:
".... In a commercial transaction of a complex nature what may appear to be better, on the face of it, may not be considered so when a overall view is taken. In such matters the court cannot substitute its decision for the decision of the party awarding the contract. On the basis of the materials placed on record we find that the CIAL bonafidely believed that involving a public sector undertaking and a national carrier would, in the long run, prove to be more beneficial to CIAL. For all these reasons it is not possible to hold that CIAL had acted arbitrarily and unreasonably and was also influenced by extraneous considerations during its decision making process".
63. It is also held in the same decision that though the decision of the instrumentalities is not amenable to judicial review, the court W.A.No.354 of 2016 53 can examine the decision making process and interfere if it is found vitiated by mala fides, unreasonableness and arbitrariness. The State, its corporations, instrumentalities and agencies have the public duty to be fair to all concerned. Even when some defect is found in the decision-making process, the court must exercise its discretionary power under Article 226 with great caution and should exercise it only in furtherance of public interest and not merely on the making out of a legal point. The court should always keep the larger public interest in mind in order to decide whether its intervention is called for or not. Only when it comes to a conclusion that overwhelming public interest requires interference, the court should intervene.
64. The same view has been reiterated in the decision reported in Michigan Rubber (India) Ltd.(M/s)v. State of Karnataka and Others (2012 (8) SCC 216). In the decision reported in Tejas Constructions and Infrastructure Private Limited v. Municipal Council, Sendhwa and Another (2012 (6) SCC 464), it has been held that eligibility of successful bidder to participate in bid process and allotment of project to it for integrated water supply scheme and challenge was raised by unsuccessful bidder at the stage of opening of technical bid itself regarding the nature of documents produced and it has been held that the eligibility conditions stipulated in notice W.A.No.354 of 2016 54 inviting tenders are:
(1) filing certified copies of audited balance sheets for the period of five years immediately preceding issue of tender notice and (2) requisite experience of executing a single integrated water supply project of the requisite value and if those documents were produced and they were substantially fulfilled, then in the absence of any mala fides or arbitrariness in process of evaluation of bids and determination of eligibility of bidders, High Court has right in not interfering with the award of contract. There also the scope, approach and test applying the principles of judicial review in such cases have been reiterated.
65. The same view has been reiterated again in the decision reported in State of Himachal Pradesh and Others v. Himachal Pradesh Nizi Vyavsayik Prishikshan Kendra Saangh (2011 (6) SCC 597) wherein it has been held that:
"It is the pervasive power and authority vested in the Government to frame policy and guidelines for progressive and growth of the society and create balances in the arena inclusive of imparting technical education from time to time. Inasmuch as ultimately it is the responsibility of the State to provide good education, training and employment, it is best suited to frame a policy or either modify/alter a decision depending on the circumstance based on relevant and acceptable materials. With W.A.No.354 of 2016 55 regard to the importance of human resources, especially manpower requirement in various professional and technical fields, the Government is free to frame its policy, alter or modify the same as to the needs of the society.
In such matters, the courts cannot interfere lightly as if the Government is unaware of the situation. The courts do not substitute their views in the decision of the Stage Government with regard to policy matters. In fact, the court must refuse to sit as appellate authority or super legislature to weigh the wisdom of legislation or policy decision of the Government unless it runs counter to the mandate of the Constitution.
66. Further it was a case where without being any question raised by way of any party as to the validity of the Cabinet decision dated 18.7.2009 and without the same being in question or any relief sought for in the writ petition, the High Court has gone into the said decision of the Cabinet having taken place after the judgment was reserved. The decision of the Cabinet generally ought not to be interfered within judicial review as lightly as has been done in the present case and the order of the High Court quashing the same was challenged and that was set aside by the Apex Court.
67. The principles regarding judicial review in respect of Government contracts have been considered in detail in Tata Cellur v. Union of India (1994 (6) SCC 651) where after discussing various W.A.No.354 of 2016 56 decisions, the Supreme Court has deduced the following principles in paragraph 94 of the judgment, which reads as follows:
"94. The principles deducible from the above are:
(1) The modern trend points to judicial restraint in administrative action.
(2) The court does not sit as a court of appeal but merely reviews the manner in which the decision was made.
(3) The court does not have the expertise to correct the administrative decision. If a review of the administrative decision is permitted it will be substituting its own decision, without the necessary expertise which itself may be fallible (4) The terms of the invitation to tender cannot be open to judicial scrutiny because the invitation to tender is in the realm of contract. Normally speaking, the decision to accept the tender or award the contract is reached by process of negotiations through several tiers. More often than not, such decisions are made qualitatively by experts.
(5) The Government must have freedom of contract. In other words, a fair play in the joints is a necessary concomitant for an administrative body functioning in an administrative sphere or quasi-administrative sphere. However, the decision must not only be tested by the application of Wednesbury principle of reasonableness (including its other facts pointed out above) but must be free from arbitrariness not affected by bias or actuated by W.A.No.354 of 2016 57 mala fides.
(6) Quashing decisions may impose heavy administrative burden on the administration and lead to increased and unbudgeted expenditure.
Based on these principles we will examine the facts of this case since they commend to us as the correct principles. "
68. Further it has also relied on the decision of the English Courts and deduced following principles also in paragraphs 76 and 77 of the judgment, which read as follows:
"76. In R.v. Panel on Take-overs and Mergers, ex p in Guinness plc, Lord Donaldson, M.R. Referred to the judicial review jurisdiction as being supervisory or 'longstop' jurisdiction. Unless that restriction on the power of the court is observed, the court will, under the guise of preventing the abuse of power, be itself guilty of usurping power.
77. The duty of the court is to confine itself to the question of legality. Its concern should be:
1. Whether a decision-making authority exceeded its powers?
2. Committed an error of law,
3. committed a breach of the rules of natural justice.
4. reached a devision which no reasonable tribunal would have reached or,
5. abused its powers.
W.A.No.354 of 2016 58
Therefore, it is not for the court to determine whether a particular policy or particular decision taken in the fulfilment of that policy is fair. It is only concerned with the manner in which those decisions have been taken. The extent of the duty to act fairly will vary from case to case. Shortly put, the grounds upon which an administrative action is subject to control by judicial review can be classified as under:
(i) Illegality : This means the decision-maker must understand correctly the law that regulates his decision-making power and must give effect to it.
(ii) Irrationality, namely, Wednesbury unreasonableness.
(iii) Procedural impropriety The above are only the broad grounds but it does not rule out addition of further grounds in course of time. As a matter of fact, in R. v. Secretary of State for the Home Department, ex Brind, Lord Diplock refers specifically to one development, namely, the possible recognition of the principle of proportionality. In all these cases the test to be adopted is that the court should, "consider whether something has gone wrong of a nature and degree which requires its interventions".
69. The same view has been again reiterated in the decision reported in Godfrey Philips India Ltd. and another v. State of U.P and others (2005 (2) SCC 515). In paragraph 78 of the above judgment, the principle has been reiterated which reads as follows: W.A.No.354 of 2016 59
"78. It was found that the words in the definition were of very wise and definite import. It was suggested that these words should be read in a restricted sense having regard to the included items on the principle of "noscitur a sociis". The suggestion was rejected in the following language: (Hospital Mazdoor Sabha case, SCR p.874) "It must be done in mind that noscitur a sociis is merely a rule of construction and it cannot prevail in cases where it is clear that the wider words have been deliberately used in order to make the scope of the defined word correspondingly wider. It is only where the intention of the legislature in associating wider words with words of narrower significance is doubtful, or otherwise not clear that the present rule of construction can be usefully applied. It can also be applied where the meaning of the words or wider import is doubtful; but, where the object of the legislature in using wider words is clear and free of ambiguity, the rule of construction in question cannot be pressed into service".
70. In the Book Principles of Statutory Interpretation by Justice G.B. Singh 9th edition 2004 the principle of noscitur a sociis has been considered where it has been opined that:
"The rule of construction of noscitur a sociis as explained by W.A.No.354 of 2016 60 LORD MACMILLAN means: "The meaning of a word is to be judged by the company it keeps". (See Rohip Pulp and Paper Mills Ltd. v. Collector of Central Excise (AIR 1991 SC 754). As stated by the Privy Council:"it is a legitimate rule of construction to construe words in an Act of Parliament with reference to words found in immediate connection with them".(See Angus Robertson v. George Day (1879 (5) AC 63) referred to in M.K. Ranganathan v. Govt. of Madras (AIR 1955 SC 604). It is a rule wider than the rule of ejusdem generis; rather the latter rule is only an application of the former. The rule has been lucidly explained by GAJENDRAGADKAR, J. in the following words:
"The rule, according to MAXWELL, means that when two or more words which are susceptible of analgous meaning are coupled together, they are understood to be used in their cognate sense. They take as it were their colour from each other, that is, the more general is restricted to a sense of analogous to a less general.
71. Further it has been observed that Associated words take their meaning from one another under the doctrine of noscitur a sociis, the philosophy of which is that the meaning of the doubtful word may be ascertained by reference to the meaning of words associated with it; such doctrine is broader than he maxim ejusdem generis'.
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72. The same principle has been reiterated in the decision reported in State of Maharashtra and others v. Narmada Estates
(p) Ltd (2010 12 SCC 419) and Bharat Singh and others v. State of Haryana and others (1988 (4) SCC 534).
73. So with these principles in mind the facts of this case has to be considered and to find out whether the learned Single Judge had committed any illegality or impropriety in passing the impugned judgment rejecting the contentions of the appellants herein.
74. The first point that has been raised by the counsel for the appellants was that under clause 2.13.10(ii), the quoted percentage of revenue share should not be less than 13% and must be a whole number only and fractional decimal of the digit is not permitted and as per clause 3.4.3 for the purpose of evaluation decimal points or fraction of a digit, which is not permissible, shall not be considered. If these two clauses are harmoniously construed, then according to the learned counsel, the financial bid having decimal point has to be rejected as a whole and it should not be taken for consideration, it will be defective application. According to the counsel, if there is a particular methods by which an application has to be filed has been specified in the tender condition, strict compliance of the same is required and the authorities cannot dilute the same. W.A.No.354 of 2016 62
75. On the other hand, according to the learned counsel for the 4th respondent as well as the airport authorities, it is only a directory clause and that was the reason why subsequent clarification has been issued as to how this will have to be considered and that consideration must be with a view to make both the clauses work together.
76. It is settled law that in cases where there are two clauses in the contract, effort must be made to construe the same harmoniously so as to make both the clauses to work out, otherwise, the purpose of the each clause will be defeated. Further while evaluating the same, it is for the court to consider the intention of the author of the clauses as to how this will have to be considered and no extrinsic help should be called for imputing or importing new construction by the court for that purpose. This was the dictum laid down in the decisions discussed above on this aspect.
77. Clause 2.3.10(ii) of the tender says that the quoted percentage of revenue share should not be less than 13% and must be a whole number only (fractional decimal of digit is not permitted). It is true that there a prohibition of quoting decimal points of the revenue share in the tender application. But procedure has been provided in the tender notice itself as to how the financial bid has to be evaluated under clause 3.4 of the terms and conditions of the tender and clause W.A.No.354 of 2016 63 3.4.3 says that for the purpose of evaluation decimal points or fraction of a digit, which is not permissible, shall not be considered. If the intention of the author of the document is to reject the proposal itself, then it would have been specifically mentioned in the evaluation portion that such proposal will be rejected as has been clarified in the case of technical feasibility. Wherever the authorities intended to reject the tender on the basis of defects, it has been specifically mentioned in the terms and conditions of the contract and evaluation of the terms and conditions itself. It is also settled law that for the purpose of understanding the intention of the author of the document, court has to consider the contract as a whole and not to cull out a particular clause alone. If the intention of the author was to reject financial bid if it consists of decimal point, then it would have been specifically mentioned in the evaluation portion of the terms and conditions that the application will be rejected on that ground. But the words were so made so as to liberally construe the situation and that was the reason why it was mentioned that if a decimal point is mentioned, then that need not be considered. That impliedly shows the intention of the author of the document that if any person had shown any decimal point along with his revenue share then, only the whole number need be considered and decimal point need not be considered. W.A.No.354 of 2016 64
78. Further this will also go to show that it is not a mandatory clause but only a directory clause and in such cases, liberal construction of the two clauses has to be undertaken by the authorities while evaluating the financial bid and if such an interpretation is made, then clause 3.4.3 will go to show that the intention of the author is to ignore the decimal point and consider the whole number alone for the purpose of considering the financial bid of the tenders made. So under such circumstances, the airport authorities were perfectly justified in construing the clause 3.4.3 liberally and ignoring the decimal point of 0.06 mentioned by the 4th respondent in their bid document as their revenue share and took the whole number alone namely 40% and come to a conclusion that since both the appellants and the 4th respondent had quoted 40%, there is a tie in the financial bid and rightly invoked clause 3.4.4 of the contract to call for a fresh proposal between the tie bidders alone and issued Ext.P5 for that purpose and rightly proceeded with the matter and accepted the second highest financial proposal submitted by the 4th respondent. So there is no arbitrariness or illegality committed by the authorities in exercising their discretion as provided in the clauses of contract and there is no necessity for this court to interfere with the discretion exercised by the authorities, which cannot be said to be arbitrary or unreasonable or W.A.No.354 of 2016 65 against public interest so as to invoke the doctrine of judicial review and set aside Ext.P5 as claimed by the counsel for the appellants. So the the learned Single Judge was perfectly justified in rejecting the contention of the appellants on that ground to quash Ext.P5 order of the respondents 3 and 4 and rightly held that Ext.P5 is legal.
79. As regards the other contention is concerned, according to the learned counsel for the appellants, the 4th respondent had misrepresented and shown certain false information in the application which they knew to be false to their knowledge and thereby committed fraud on the authorities. Further as per the contract, they will have to show their financial position of the income derived from the duty free outlets being conducted in international terminals and that does not include any income derived from involving the distribution of the articles. In this case it will be seen from Ext.R3(g) application submitted by the 4th respondent that apart from Pasirgudang - passenger terminal of Malasya, they had shown seven other locations in column-III, namely, Johar Port, Tanjung Pelepas Port, Tanjung Penggerang Port, Tanjung Langsat Port, Belungkor Ferry Terminal, Senai International Airport, Kukup Ferry terminal and they had shown the date of commencement of business as 19.01.2011 whereas according to the counsel, they have no outlets in those areas and even W.A.No.354 of 2016 66 according to the 4th respondent and the authorities that they are only supplying the articles to the consumer at those places which cannot be said to be an income derived from the retail shop outlet and in clause- B financial capacity in Ext.R3(g), the annual turn over shown as including duty free business and there is nothing on record to show that it was only from duty free retail business. So as such, they have no technical capacity as well and the tender should not have been accepted.
80. It is fairly conceded by the counsel for the appellants that the fourth respondent was not totally disqualified from participating in the bid as they have no duty free outlets in any of the international airports or passenger terminals. They have also no case that they were not having the minimum financial capacity or turn over during three of five years of their experience in that business as required in the contract namely 23,50,400 US$. The 4th respondent had submitted the application form-I, and in Part-B, financial capacity what was required to be shown as their financial capacity as the annual turn over including, but the format floated by the authorities for this purpose when the fresh tender was floated, word 'including' was not there. The counsel for the 4th respondent had submitted that in earlier forms what is required to be submitted is the turn over including the revenue W.A.No.354 of 2016 67 from the Duty Free Shop. So according to the learned counsel, when fourth respondent downloaded, a wrong format and that was submitted, but the accompanying documents produced will go to show that the income shown is the income derived from the Duty Free Shop alone. So it is only an unintentional mistake which will not go to the root of the contract clauses so as to make it a violation entitled rejection of the same. We have perused the formats and it is fairly conceded by the counsel for the second and third respondents as well that earlier such a clause was there, but in the tender notice that has been published later that clause was not there. Further there is some force in the submission made by the counsel for the second and third respondents that it is not the tender application alone that has to be considered, but the tender application includes the documents produced along with the tender application which form part of the tender and if the entire documents were considered, it cannot be said that there was any defect in the application.
81. It will be seen from the auditor's certificate issued and produced along with Ext.R3(g) that the experience certificate was issued by Pasir Gudang passenger terminal is SDN.BHD dated 15.10.2015 stating that the 4th respondent is conducting a duty free retail outlet in their passenger terminal since October, 2005. This is W.A.No.354 of 2016 68 the certificate sought to be produced issued by the client as mentioned in clause 2.13.5(xii) and along with that they have produced another certificate issued by Royal Malaysian Customs Department, showing that the 4th respondent was permitted to sell duty free goods in the passenger terminals shown as Item -2 to 8 in Ext.R3(g) application filed by them. The counsel has no dispute regarding the fact that without getting such licence, they cannot deal with the articles in these terminals. So it cannot be said that there is any misrepresentation made by them, but it is only an additional qualification that has been provided coupled with the licence issued by the authorities in accordance with the law of that land, permitting them to sell duty free goods and it will be seen from the documents produced that it can be done only in the presence of customs officials of that place. Further it was clarified by the counsel for the 4th respondent that the articles will be sold from Pasir Gudang passenger terminal and the delivery will be effected from the place of choice of the customer to purchase the article from there, for which a licence is required which is evident from the document produced along with the tender. So it cannot be said to be a distribution of goods as contended by the counsel for the appellants and the distribution etc., mentioned in that clause is relating to the wholesale business of duty free shops prior to the sale from the W.A.No.354 of 2016 69 duty free retail shop and not post sale articles from the Duty Free Shop. Further it cannot be said to be a suppression of any material fact or making a false representation as such, if the tender form along with the documents produced by the 4th respondent will go to show that the nature of business done by them is clear from those documents and it cannot be treated as a false representation or fraudulent misrepresentation made by the 4th respondent as a vitiating circumstance to reject the tender itself.
82. Merely because certain items have been added to the tender as a superfluous one accompanied by certificates clarifying its existence or otherwise or nature of transaction and even without that, if the tender is valid otherwise, then it cannot be said that the tender is bad for that reason. Further along with the particulars given in the tender form, if the documents supporting the same have been produced which will clarify its real purpose, then it cannot be said that there is false representation or mis representation so as to vitiate the document produced itself. Further it was fairly conceded by the counsel for the appellants that in Pasir Gudang, Johar Port, Tanjung Pelepas Port, Tanjung Penggerang Port, Tanjung Langsat Port, Belungkor Ferry Terminal, Senai International Airport, Kukup Ferry terminal, there was a passenger terminal existing and as such the W.A.No.354 of 2016 70 possibility of delivery of articles at that airport in the presence of customs officers could be possible. Sine the 4th respondent is not operating retail duty free shop in all these places, the date of licence given to them give them a right to effect delivery in those places in the presence of a customs officer of the customs station there. So the date of licence as the date of commencement of business in those places cannot be said to be a misrepresentation or false representation as contended by the counsel for the appellants. Further they are not mandatory one and it is only auxiliary to the qualification even without which the qualification of the tenderer can be considered and if he satisfies all other criteria and if he falls within that category, then his tender can be said to be valid. So under the circumstances, the submission made by the learned senior counsel for the appellants that there is misrepresentation made by the 4th respondent, thereby their tender is not valid and the airport authorities ought to have rejected the tender at the threshold itself is without any substance and the same is liable to rejected. Further the documents produced by both the sides in this appeal need not require any consideration for adjudication of the appeal, because the purpose for which those documents were produced is not in dispute in the appeal in view of the admission made by the bar at the time of hearing of the appeal. W.A.No.354 of 2016 71
In view of the above discussion, we do not find any reason to hold that the learned single judge had committed any illegality in dismissing the writ petition filed by the appellant. We also do not find any reason to come to a different conclusion than the conclusion arrived at by the learned single judge and to hold that Ext.P5 is vitiated by any circumstance mentioned by the counsel for the appellants.
In the result, the writ appeal fails and the same is hereby dismissed confirming the decision of the learned Single Judge. No costs.
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P.N. RAVINDRAN, JUDGE.
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K. RAMAKRISHNAN, JUDGE.
cl