Punjab-Haryana High Court
Reetika And Ors vs State Of Punjab And Ors on 1 September, 2015
Author: Rakesh Kumar Jain
Bench: Rakesh Kumar Jain
VINOD KUMAR
CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) (1)
2015.09.01 14:21
I attest to the accuracy and
authenticity of this document
Chandigarh
IN THE HIGH COURT OF PUNJAB AND HARYANA AT
CHANDIGARH
CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M)
Date of decision:01.09.2015
Reetika and others ...Petitioners
Versus
State of Punjab and others ...Respondents
CORAM: Hon'ble Mr. Justice Rakesh Kumar Jain
Present:- Mr. Girish Agnihotri, Senior Advocate, with
Mr. Arvind Seth, Advocate, for the petitioners.
Mr. Yatender Sharma, Addl. A.G., Punjab.
Mr. Anupam Gupta, Senior Advocate, with
Mr. Gautam Pathania, Advocate, for respondent Nos.2 &3.
Mr. Rajiv Atma Ram, Senior Advocate, with
Mr. R.S.Kalra, Advocate, for respondent Nos.4 & 5.
Mr. D.K.Singal, Advocate,
for respondent Nos.6 to 44.
*****
Rakesh Kumar Jain, J.
This order shall dispose of three petitions bearing CWP No.11475 of 2015 titled as "Reetika and others vs. State of Punjab and others" (for short "first petition"), CWP No.13247 of 2015 titled as "Yuvraj Arora vs. State of Punjab and others" (for short "second petition") and CWP No.12409 of 2015 titled as "Harsimran Kalsi and others vs. Baba Farid University of Health Sciences" (for short "third petition") as the issues involved in all the three petitions are common. However, the first petition is being kept as lead case in which the replies have been filed by the respondents.
VINOD KUMARCWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) (2) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh The Punjab Government issued Notification No.5/35/2014-5HB-
III/559 dated 30.03.2015 for admission to the MBBS/BDS courses in Medical and Dental institutes in the State of Punjab for the session 2015 and as per Clause 2 of the said notification, the Baba Farid University of Health Sciences, Faridkot (hereinafter referred to as the "University") was authorized to conduct the Punjab Medical Entrance Test-2015 (hereinafter referred to as the "PMET-
2015"). The University issued the prospectus in terms of the notification dated 30.03.2015, inviting online applications from the candidates aspiring for admission to the aforesaid medical courses and provided the following calendar for the purpose of examination and admission:-
"PMET-2015 IMPORTANT DATES Sr. Event Date No.
1. Availability of prospectus at University website i.e. 7th April, 2015 onwards www.bfuhs.ac.in. Hardcopy of prospectus can be had from University after paying Rs.200/- in cash.
2. Last date for online submission of application form Without late fee:
through University website i.e. www.bfuhs.ac.in. 29th April, 2015 Application fee : Rs.5000/- (for SC 2500) With late fee of Rs. 3000/-
4th May, 2015
3. Last date for deposition of application fee in any 7th May, 2015 upto 4:00 branch of Oriental Bank of Commerce, through pm Bank Challan form which will be generated after online submission of application form.
4. Candidates can download Admit Card from University From 11th May, 2015 website www.bfuhs.ac.in.
5. Date of conduct of PMET-2015 17th May, 2015 (Sunday) Timing: 11:00 am to 2:00 pm
6. Date of Result Declaration By 21st May, 2015 AFTER DECLARATION OF PMET-2015 RESULT SCHEDULE OF FILLING OF ONLINE ADMISSION APPLICATION FORM AND PREFERENCE OF COLLEGE/COURSE FORM
7. FILLING OF ONLINE Admission Application Form 27th May, 2015 onwards and PREFERENCE of College/course For Admission through University website www.bfuhs.ac.in.
8. Last date of FILLING OF ONLINE Admission 15th June, 2015 Application Form and PREFERENCE of College/Course FOR ADMISSION through University website.
9. 1st Round allotment of seats as per preferences given by 19th June, 2015-20th June, candidates. 2015 VINOD KUMAR CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) (3) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh
10. Reporting at the allotted Medical/Dental College for 26th June to 30th June, Joining & Medical checkup, checking of 2015 documents/eligibility of candidates.
FOR NRI CANDIDATES
11. NRI candidates have to appear in PMET-2015 and to obtain eligibility certificate & apply on prescribing Admission application form. For detail visit NRI corner at www.bfuhs.ac.in.
The other important features of the prospectus, highlighted in this case, are as follows:-
"7. CONDUCT OF THE TEST 1 to 10 xxx xxx xxx xxx
11. No candidate, without the special permission of the Centre Superintendent or the Invigilator concerned, will leave his/her seat or the Examination Room until the expiry of full time allotted for test. Candidates should not leave the Hall without handing over their Question Booklets and the OMR Response Sheets to the Invigilator on duty."
"8. GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS FOR THE CANDIDATES
1. xxx xxx xxx xxx
2. No re-examination shall be held by the University under any circumstances, for those candidates who are unable to appear on the schedule date of PMET-2015 for any reason whatsoever."
"9. MODE OF THE TEST
(a) and (b) xxx xxx xxx xxx xxx
(c) The test will be of objective type with multiple choice questions and candidates will be provided with a sealed Question Booklet and an OMR Response Sheet. In the Test/Question Booklet, there will be 200 items (questions) serially numbered from 1 to 200. Each item will be followed by four responses marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). Of these four responses only one VINOD KUMAR CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) (4) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh will be the correct or the most appropriate response."
"11. THE OMR RESPONSE SHEET 1 to 3 xxx xxx xxx
4. (b)(3) Columns 1 to 200 (i.e. responses to questions in Question Booklet). Each column corresponds to the serial number of question given in the Question Booklet. With each column there are five ovals out of which four correspond to the four responses one of which is correct or most appropriate. The fifth one is for un-attempted question i.e. Option E. "12. CAUTION WHILE MARKING AN ANSWER
(i) If more than one oval is darkened such a response shall be treated wrong.
(ii) to (vii) xxx xxx xxx
(viii) In un-attempted questions 5th oval i.e. option-E must be darkened otherwise all blank ovals in a question shall lead to negative marking."
"13 NEGATIVE MARKING There will be no negative marking for wrong answers. However, for security reasons fifth oval (i.e. E) has been introduced. In all un-attempted questions fifth oval must be darkened otherwise if all ovals are left blank then that question shall carry one negative mark. Hence it is in the interest of the candidate not to leave all ovals blank in any question and one oval has to be shaded out of the five."
"20. Rechecking of OMR Response Sheet There is provision of re-checking of the OMR response sheet, if demanded by the candidate/guardian of the candidate. In this regard, application will be submitted on plain paper, to the University within 7 days after declaration of result. Rechecking fee is Rs.5000/- to be paid in the form VINOD KUMAR CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) (5) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh of Demand Draft favouring Registrar, Baba Farid University of Health Sciences, payable at Faridkot."
The University issued admit cards through its website to a total number of 15517 candidates. It was also provided therein that "Examination Venue List of examination centre and centre code will be published in The Tribune, Daily Ajit (Punjabi), Punjab Kesri of 14.05.2015 and on our website www.bfuhs.ac.in". The advertisement was made in three leadings newspapers, namely, The Tribune (English), the Daily Ajit (Punjabi) and the Punjab Kesri (Hindi) on 14.05.2015, regarding examination venue of the PMET-2015 as the Lovely Professional University, Jalandhar-Delhi G.T. Road, Phagwara along with Centre Codes. It was also put up on the University website a day earlier, on 13.05.2015, along with a coloured map for the guidance of candidates traveling to the examination venue captioned "Directions to Reach LPU for PMT on 17.05.2015".
The PMET-2015 was held as per programme, provided in the prospectus on 17.05.2015 at the aforesaid venue, in which out of total 15517 candidates, 15152 candidates appeared and as per the result declared on 18.05.2015, 7043 candidates were successful.
The petitioners were unhappy with the manner in which the PMET-
2015 was held by the University only at one venue where students from all over the State of Punjab poured in with their parents/guardians and faced lot of difficulties/inconvenience in approaching the venue because of the traffic jam and the PMET-2015, which had to start at 11.00 a.m., got delayed by 45 minutes and instead of providing independent table and chair to each candidate, they were made to sit at a long table and desk with four students in a row, without sufficient gap between them. They were also sceptical of the glaring mistakes VINOD KUMAR CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) (6) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh and errors in question paper, as according to them, some questions were repeated, some question had more than one correct options, some questions had printing errors etc. Thus, the petitioners, in the first petition, challenged the validity of the PMET-2015 examination and prayed for a re-test, supply of the question paper, direction to upload the answer key and OMR sheets on the website of the University. The first petition was listed before this Court on 28.05.2015 for preliminary hearing, in which the following order was passed by this Court:-
"The petitioners, recently appeared in the Punjab Medical Entrance Test (PMET) Examination, 2015 held on 17.05.2015, have challenged the validity of clause 7(11) of the prospectus which provides that "Candidates should not leave the Hall without handing over their Question Booklets"
and have also raised a question "as to whether, the respondent should not upload the answer key on its web site"?
So far as, the first question is concerned, reliance has been placed on a Division Bench judgment of the Delhi High Court in the case of Master Rajat Mann vs. Guru Gobind Singh Indraprastha University and Ors. in LPA No.543 of 2014 decided on 07.05.2015.
Notice of motion for 05.06.2015.
Dasti."
On 10.06.2015, replies filed by respondent Nos.1, 2 and 3 were taken on record. On 17.06.2015, an application of the petitioners in the first petition bearing CM No.7508-CWP of 2015 for amending the writ petition was allowed as there was no contest by the University and the amended writ petition was taken on record and reply to the un-amended writ petition, as requested by VINOD KUMAR CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) (7) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh counsel for the University, was treated as reply to the amended writ petition as well.
In the beginning, the petitioners highlighted in the petition 16 errors in the question booklet and answer key on the basis of their memory, which are reproduced as under:-
"1) A question having two correct options: Question was on oscillations and it had two correct options. One option was that velocity is maximum at the mean position and the other option was that acceleration is maximum at extreme position. Both the options were correct, so the student was at a loss to choose one of them although both of them were correct.
2) Another question having two correct options: Question was relating to the depletion layer at the p-n junction.
One choice was that there are immobile charges in the depletion region and another choice was that it is devoid of mobile carriers. Both the choices were correct leaving the child bewildered as to which one he should tick as correct.
3) This question had no correct response: Question was regarding de Broglie wavelength when a particle is dropped from a height. The correct answer was that it was inversely proportional to under-root of h, which was never given as an option in the response.
4) This question had two correct options: The question was regarding the base current and emitter current when collector current was 10 Ampere and 95% of the electrons pass through. Both the answers .53 Ampere and 10.53 Ampere were correct which caused harassment to the students.
5) There was no correct option: The question was regarding the wave motion's basic equation and the VINOD KUMAR CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) (8) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh answer should have been under root of some digits but the answer provided was some digits only. This is a clear case of mental torture of students.
6) Incorrect words making no sense: A question relating to electron affinity of Halogen i.e. Iodine, L was written wrongly.
7) This question made a wrong statement that Formaldehyde reacts with KOH to form methanol and potassium and the student was asked to name the reaction. There is no such reaction in Chemistry.
8) Another question asking about de Broglie wavelength when Hydrogen molecule moves with a velocity of 105 cm per second at 200 degree Celsius had no correct option.
9) The question asking about time taken in still water when a boat took 6 hours downstream and 10 hours upstream was repeated.
10) Yet another question relating to the entities conserved during elastic collision had two correct options.
11) In an isothermal process dU=0 and dQ=dW, hence both the answers were correct, which put the students in a difficult quandary.
12) Argon gas was discovered by Lord Raleigh and William Ramsey, where as the students were asked to choose between them which was absolutely wrong.
13) In this question numerical values of the parameters made the question totally absurd. 10 to the power of 9 was simply written as 109, which is a totally different value.
14) In yet another question numerical values of the parameters made the question totally absurd. 10 to the power of 5 was simply written as 105, which is a totally different value.
VINOD KUMARCWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) (9) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh 15) In a biology questions they forgot to mention whether
the student has to identify the correct or the incorrect statement.
16) A question on biology regarding plant growth was doubtful."
And it is further alleged that the University was unjustified in not providing the answer keys, contrary to the procedure adopted by other institutions which are also conducting the similar entrance tests. The petitioners have referred to All India Pre-Medical Test-2015, conducted by the Central Board of Secondary Education (hereinafter referred to as the "CBSE") and highlighted Clause 16.1 of the Information Bulletin of the CBSE as per which the CBSE would display answer key of the question, giving liberty to the candidates to lay their challenge in case of any ambiguity, prior to the declaration of result. The opportunity is provided to the candidates by the CBSE to lay their challenge to the answer key on payment of `1,000/- per response with a condition that if the challenge is accepted by the Board, then `1,000/-
charged would be refunded.
The second and third petitions contained the same grievance as these petitions were filed after notice was issued in the first petition except for the fact that in the second petition, the petitioner has filed an application bearing CM No.8293-CWP-2015 in order to place on record the copies of NCERT question/answer books.
It is, however, pertinent to mention that the University has chosen not to file reply to the second and third petitions as an exhaustive reply has already been filed in the first petition.
In the reply filed by the University, the allegations made in para nos.2, 7, 8, 16 and 17 are emphatically refuted. The answer keys of the question VINOD KUMAR CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 10 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh booklets are attached with their reply. It is alleged that total 247 candidates had applied for re-checking of their OMR response sheets under the provisions for rechecking, provided in the prospectus. Their OMR response sheets were re-
checked manually on 01.06.2015 and 02.06.2015 by a 20 members committee of senior faculty appointed for that purpose by the Coordinator-PMET-2015-cum-
Registrar of the University. This committee was headed by Dr. Zora Singh, Prof. & Head, Department of Anatomy, GGS Medical College, Faridkot. All the 247 OMR response sheets have been found to be correctly evaluated and the said candidates were informed accordingly by SMS and they were also invited by the University to see their OMR response sheets. Their OMR response sheets along with answer keys were shown to those candidates who came to the University on 08/09.06.2015 pursuant to the information supplied to them by the University. It is further alleged that out of the total 15517 applicants, 15152 candidates took the entrance test on 17.05.2015, out of which 7043 candidates qualified the test. The University has also prepared a chart depicting the students who had applied, appeared, absented, percentage of appearance, percentage of absence, qualified candidates and percentage of qualified candidates w.e.f. PMET-2007 to PMET-2015, which is reproduced as under for the ready reference:-
Year Applied Appeared Absent Appeared Absent Qualified Qualified %age %age candidates %age PMET 2007 9183 8917 266 97.10 2.90 4415 49.51 PMET 2008 8179 7903 276 96.63 3.37 2319 29.34 PMET 2009 6628 6499 129 98.04 1.95 2327 35.80 PMET 2010 7227 6973 254 96.49 3.51 2954 42.36 PMET 2011 9082 8759 323 96.44 3.56 2194 25.05 PMET 2012 11860 11647 213 98.20 1.80 4144 35.58 PMET 2013 Entrance test not conducted by the University, admissions made on the merit of NEET-
2013.
PMET 2014 Entrance test not conducted by the University, admissions made on the merit of AIPMT-2014.
PMET 2015 15517 15152 365 97.65 2.35 7043 46.48 VINOD KUMAR CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 11 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh
The University has also prepared other two charts in regard to the other entrance tests conducted by it in the year 2014 and also in recruitment tests held on behalf of the State of Punjab under the National Health Mission, Punjab, which are also reproduced as under:-
Entrance Tests Sr. Year Entrance Venue Applicants Appeared Absentees Absentees No. Test %age
1. 2011 PGET-2011 SGGS College, 2177 2101 76 3.49 Sector 26, Chandigarh
2. 2012 PGET-2012 Centres at 2890 2776 114 3.94 Faridkot
3. 2013 Post Basic SGGS College, 2233 2212 21 0.94 B.Sc. Sector 26, Nursing- Chandigarh 2013
4. 2014 Post Basic Centres at 1726 1670 56 3.24 B.Sc. Faridkot Nursing-2014
Recruitment Tests Sr. Date Name of Venue Applicants Appeared Absentees Absentees No Recruitment %age Test
1. 9.3.2014 Medical SGGS College, 776 503 273 35.18 Officers Sector 26, Chandigarh
2. 9.3.2014 Ayurveda -do- 2039 1794 245 12.01 Medical Officers
3. 30.3.2014 Staff Nurses Loverly 9742 8751 991 10.17 Professional University, Jalandhar-Delhi G.T. Road, Phagwara
4. 22.3.2014 Laboratory SGGS College, 2583 2120 463 17.92 Technicians Sector 26, Chandigarh
5. 11.5.2014 ANM -do- 5960 3909 483 8.10 (Female)
6. 25.2.2014 Pharmacists -do- 4857 5477 948 19.51 From the aforesaid charts, it is tried to be highlighted that the absentee percentage of 2.35 in PMET-2015 is lower than that of PMET-2007 (2.90%), PMET-2008 (3.37%), PMET-2010 (3.51%) and PMET-2011 (3.56%).
Similarly, the absentee percentage of PMET-2015 is shown to be lower than PGET-2011 (3.49%), PGET-2012 (3.94%) and Post Basic B.Sc. Nursing-2014 VINOD KUMAR CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 12 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh (3.24%) and also lower than the six recruitment tests held by the University (8.10% to 35.18%) in the year 2014.
It is also alleged that out of 15152 candidates, 1549 candidates secured 55-60% marks; 1219 candidates secured 60-65% marks, 807 candidates secured 65-70% marks and 378 candidates secured 70-78% marks in PMET-
2015.
While refuting the allegations of the petitioners in regard to arrangements made by the University for conducting the exam at a single venue, it is alleged in the reply that the University had made elaborate arrangements as the University was alive to the fact that large number of students with their parents/guardians would converge on the examination venue, mostly in their own vehicles, therefore, instructions were put up on the University website, along with a colourerd map for the guidance of candidates (traveling to the examination venue) captioned "Directions to Reach LPU for PMT on 17.05.2015" showing the approach to the Lovely Professional University Campus (for short "LPU Campus") from the Jalandhar-Delhi G.T. Road, both from the Ludhiana/Phagwara side and the Jalandhar/Pathankot side as well as from Chandigarh/Nawanshahr side. It was specifically indicated that "Blocks marked with red periphery are the only centres for PMET-2015".
The venue of the test was disclosed, as per practice of the University, only three days prior to the test, in order to ensure the integrity of the examination and to prevent penetration by unscrupulous gangs/individuals, who become active on the eve of such competitive examinations and employ all means and resources, including modern electronic gadgets, to compromise the integrity of the examination for illicit gain, as the University was aware of the leakage of AIPMT-2015 conducted on May 03, 2015. It is further alleged that VINOD KUMAR CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 13 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh the University had also written letter dated 14.05.2015 to the Deputy Commissioner, Kapurthala as well as the Senior Superintendent of Police, Kapurthala, asking them to make necessary arrangements for traffic control etc. in the area of examination centre, bus-stand and railway station as the University was expecting about 30000 persons to reach on that date. It also wrote a letter to the General Manager, PRTC, Kapurthala for making necessary arrangements for transportation on 17.05.2015 to the LPU Campus from 7.00 a.m. onwards. The Chief Engineer, Punjab State Power Corporation Ltd., Kapurthala, was also requested to make necessary arrangements so that uninterrupted supply of electricity be maintained during the conduct of examination on 17.05.2015.
Earlier to that, the University had written a letter on 15.05.2015 to the Director General of Police, Punjab and the Additional Director General of Police (Intelligence), Punjab, about the exam to be held on 17.05.2015 to ensure that the entrance test may not be sabotaged by any unscrupulous persons/gangs. In addition, the Invigilating Staff at each centre was appointed under the instructions of the University and two Observers for each of the 62 centres on the LPU campus were appointed by the University for the smooth, transparent and fair conduct of the examination. There were 124 Observers and 15 Special Observers. It is also alleged that 500 police personnel headed by the Senior Superintendent of Police, Kapurthala, assisted by two Superintendents of Police and three Deputy Superintendents of Police, were deployed by the State Government at the LPU Campus and on the Jalandhar-Delhi G.T. Road (NH-1) on 17.05.2015 in connection with PMET-2015. Further the University had installed wall clocks in each room of all the 62 Centre and the candidates were not allowed to wear any watch. The candidates were provided black pens by the University and they were not allowed to carry their own pens or pencils. They VINOD KUMAR CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 14 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh were also not allowed to carry any mobile phones or any other electronic items like calculator etc. The seating plan in all the 62 centres, in all the rooms therein, was such that neither two candidates sitting horizontally next to each other in the same row nor any two candidates sitting vertically behind or in front of each other were given the same set of Question Booklet. The sitting plan, depicted by a diagram, is also attached with the reply. As a result of the aforesaid arrangements, it is alleged that not a single case of impersonation, cheating or use of unfair means was observed in the exam.
In order to oversee all the arrangements, the Vice Chancellor of the University was personally present throughout at the LPU campus on 17.05.2015, from 7.30 am to about 6.30-6.45 p.m. along with Registrar and Joint Registrar of the University, who had been camping at the LPU campus since the previous day, and had left the venue along with the Vice Chancellor with the entire examination material and reached Faridkot at about 10.30 p.m. on 17.05.2015.
The invigilating staff and the observers were not allowed to use their personal mobile phones during the exam and their personal mobile phones were kept in the control room. The University had provided 65 special mobile phones with new numbers, having no cameras in the mobile sets, including one for each of the 62 centres (to be used by either of the two observers assigned to each centre) and two for the control room. The centre-wise list of these mobile phone numbers is also attached with the reply. These mobile phones were given in the morning on 17.05.2015 on the day of the entrance test itself.
Videography of each candidate was also done at all the 62 centres for which 62 videographers were hired and 10 photographers were also hired for still photography. Insofar as the delay of 45 minutes in commencement of the exam VINOD KUMAR CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 15 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh is concerned, it is alleged that the Vice Chancellor gave a first-hand account press note in this regard.
The University has strongly condemned allegations made by the petitioners that the test was delayed to accommodate certain VIPs and the wards of some VIPs, which has been allegedly made without any basis or evidence. It is also added that the allegation that 350 candidates could not appear in the test as they could not reach the examination venue due to various heavy jams and traffic rush contradicts the allegation that the entrance test was delayed in order to accommodate certain VIPs and the wards of the VIPs.
As regards the allegation made in para nos.16 and 17 of the writ petition, the University has attached the answer key of Question Booklet of set `A' of PMET-2015 and has alleged that except Question No.147 in Set `A', which was not properly typed and Question No.70 of Set `A' wherein there was a printing error in option (d), no other mistake in the question paper was found and both the said questions were cancelled and equal marks therefore (4 marks each) have already been given to all the candidates while preparing the result of PMET-2015.
In order to dispel all doubts of the petitioners about the mistakes and errors, alleged in para 17 of the writ petition, the University has allegedly got it examined by their subject experts/key experts. The opinion expressed by their subject experts/key experts on 08.06.2015, which forms part of the reply as Annexure R-27, is also reproduced as under:-
"Proceeding of the meeting held on 08.06.2015 at 10:00 AM in the office of Registrar, Baba Farid University of Health Sciences, Faridkot, Regarding objections raised on questions and options of answers of PMET 2015 by the petitioners in para 17 of CWP No.11475 of 2015.
Following Key Experts were present VINOD KUMAR CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 16 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh
1. Dr. Navdeep Shekher, Professor (Botany), Govt. Brijindra College, Faridkot.
2. Dr. Kamaljit Kaur, Associate Professor (Zoology), Govt.
Brijindra College, Faridkot.
3. Dr. Raman Mahajan, Associate Professor (Chemistry), Govt.
Brijindra College, Faridkot.
4. Dr. Harjit Singh, Assistant Professor (Physics), Govt. Brijindra College, Faridkot.
Copy of the CWP No. 11475 of 2015 and PMET-2015 Question Booklet Set-A was provided to the above key Experts.
After going through the para 17 of the CWP No. 11475 of 2015 and PMET-2015 question booklet of Set-A Following observations were made by the key experts.
Physics (Question No.1 to 50):
Objection No.1 in Para 17 of CWP- Question no.28 of Set A:
In the objection the petitioner says that this question has two options, but in the options, the correct option is 'c' (Velocity is maximum at equilibrium position) has been given. The other option as mentioned by the petitioner in CWP i.e. - ACCELERATION IS MAXIMUM AT EXTREME POSITION is not mentioned in answer choices.
Objection No.2 in Para 17 of CWP- Question no.11:
In the objection the petitioner says that this question has two options i.e. (Option -(a) and Option - (d)), but the correct option is option 'c' (Recombination of holes and electrons has taken place).
Objection No.3 in Para 17 CWP- Question no.6 In the objection the petitioner mentioned that there is no correct option was given in the question, but the correct option is option 'a' i.e. 'Height'.
Petitioner statement regarding the de Broglie wavelength is inversely proportional to under-root of 'h' is wrong. Objection No.4 Question no.10 of Set A:
In the objection the petitioner says that this question has two options i.e. Option 'B' and Option 'c', but the correct option is 'b' (Emitter Current is 10.53 mA). The option 'c' (Base current is .53 mA) is wrong.VINOD KUMAR
CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 17 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh Because the base current is always motioned in Micro Amepre (uA), but not in Milli Ameper (mA).
Objection No.5 in Para 17 of CWP This objection is not specifically related to any question in the Question Booklet. There no such question related to WAVE MOTION'S BASIC EQUATION.
Objection No.-9 Question no.22 of Set A:
In the objection the petitioner says that there is repetition of some words in the statement of asked question, but there no repetition of words in the statement of this question and thus statement is right. Statement is- "A MOTORBOAT COVERS A GIVEN DISTANCE IN 6 HOURS MOVING DOWNSTREAM ON A RIVER. IT COVERS THE SAME DISTANCE IN 10 HOURS MOVEING UPSTREAM. THE TIME IT TAKES TO COVER THE SAME DISTANCE IN STILL WATER IS __________"
Objection No.10 in Para 17 of CWP- Question no.21 of Set A:
In the objection the petitioner says that this question has two options i.e. Option (a) and Option (c), but the correct option is (c) (Momentum is conserved only). The option (a) and option (c) are true only in case of ELASTIC COLLISION but question was asked about INELASTIC COLLISION. The answer choice is option is (c)- (Momentum is conserved only) correct with respect to INELASTIC COLLISION.
Objection No.11 in Para 17 of CWP-Question no.38 of Set A:
In the objection the petitioner says that this question has two correct options i.e. Option 'a' and Option 'c', but the correct option is 'b'. Regarding isothermal process dU=0 and dQ = dW which are already given in the question, then only alternating correct option is 'b' (dQ=0).
Chemistry (Question No.-51 to 100):
Objection No.6 in Para 17 of CWP- Question no.70 Regarding the question of ELECTRON AFFINITY of Halogens the correct answer is F>I which is read in the question paper F>L, which is printing error therefore this benefits of equal marks (i.e. 4 marks) has VINOD KUMAR CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 18 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh been given to all candidates those who have attempted and also who have not even attempted this question.
Objection No.7 in Para 17 of CWP- Question no.84 Regarding the reaction between Formaldehyde with KOH to form Methanol and Potassium, this reaction is known as Cannizarro reaction i.e. Option (c), where as the objection raised is there is no such reaction.
Objection No.8 in Para 17 of CWP- Question no.53 The petitioners say that there is NO correct option, however it is evident that this statement has 2A0 as correct option i.e. (a). The options are 2A0, 1000A0, 100A0, 10A0 and the correct option is nearly 2A0.
Objection No.12 in Para 17 of CWP- Question no.71 According to the petitioners ARGON was discovered both by Lord Rayleigh and Willaim Ramsay, however argon was first discovered by Lord Rayleigh and was later named by Ramsay. Therefore the correct choice to the question is (a) i.e. Rayleigh.
Biology Section (Botany-Question No.-101-150) / (Zoology-Question No.151-200) Objection No.13 in Para 17 of CWP-Question no.147 In this question where the length of double stranded helical DNA is 1.7 meters and question asked is "NUMBER OF BASE PAIRS PRESENT IN A DNA." The correct answer is 5x109 i.e. 'A' however in the question booklet it is visible as 5 x 109 therefore this question is cancelled because of printing error and equal marks (i.e.4 marks) have been given to all the candidates those who have attempted and also who have not even attempted this question.
Objection No.14 in Para 17 of CWP-Question no.147 For the same question raised another objection that instead of 105 it is visible as 105. Which clarify only the correct answer is 5x109 and not as 1.7x 105 . For question as mention earlier the benefit has been given to all candidates those who have attempted and also who have not even attempted this question.VINOD KUMAR
CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 19 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh Objection No.15 in Para 17 of CWP- only two questions in biology section i.e. Question No.-177 and Question No.180, in which correct choice has to be identified by the candidate.
Question No.177 In regard to this question where the question is address is to only correct statement. Out of the 4 option given it is only the option- 'A' (During INSPIRATION EXTERNAL INTERCONSTABLE MUSCLES AND DIAPHRAGM CONTRACTS) is ONLY correct statement. Where all other statement pertains to slow breathing, syanosis, coryza are wrong.
Petitioner has mentioned that the question demand correct or incorrect statement. There is NO such statement in the question.
Question No.180 Again question read which statement is correct with regard to PRINCIPLE OF THE SAFE BLOOD TRANSFUSION, the correct statement is only one i.e. 'c'. And there is no confusion that question has been asked to identify correct or incorrect statement.
Objection No.16 in Para 17 of CWP- Question no.136 Regarding the statements regarding Growth in Plant is doubtful it is submitted that there is only one correct statement i.e. 'd' which means that Growth in Plant is BOTH DETERMINATE AND INDERTERMINATE."
The University has also expressed its full faith in the key experts because of their merit and experience and has given their bio-data, which is also reproduced as under:-
"Bio-Data Dr. Navdeep Shekher, Professor in Botany, Government Brijindra College, Faridkot.
Educational Qualification:
M.Sc (Hons. School), M. Phil with distinction, Ph.D. in Botany from Punjab University, Chandigarh.
Work Experience:
1. Senior Scientific officer: June 1985 to January 1988 VINOD KUMAR CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 20 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh
2. Lecturer in Botany: January 1988 to 2011 (at Govt.
Brijindra College, Faridkot)
3. Professor in Botany: 2011 to till date (at Govt.
Brijindra College, Faridkot) Professional Experience:
1. Member Board of Under-graduate studies in Botany, Punjabi University, Patiala.
2. Member Faculty of Life Science, Punjabi University, Patiala.
3. Paper setter of various classes of Punjabi University, Patiala.
4. Evaluated answer sheets of various classes of Punjabi University, Patiala.
5. Many times perform duties of key advisor of various competitive examination of Baba Farid University of Health Sciences, Faridkot."
"Bio-Data Name Kamaljeet Kaur, Associate Professor (Zoology), Government Brijindra College, Faridkot.
Educational Qualification:
a) M.Sc. (Zoology), year 1978, from Kurukshetra University, Kurukshetra.
b) Ph.D (cytogenetics) year 1984 from Kurukshetra University, Kurukshetra.
Work/Teaching Experience:
1. Government Sector From August 1986 to 1988
2. Private College From 1988 to 1993
3. Govt. Brijindra College From 1993 to till date Professional Experience:
1. For the last twenty years guiding the PMET students, B.Sc.
Students.
2. Member of board of studies of Biology of Punjabi University, Patiala.
3. Evaluated answer sheets of various classes of Punjabi University, Patiala as well as competitive exams like P.C.S papers.
4. Many times perform duties of key advisor of various competitive examination of Baba Farid Universityof Health Sciences, Faridkot."VINOD KUMAR
CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 21 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh "Bio-Data
Harjit Singh, Assistant Professor, Government Brijindra College, Faridkot.
Educational Qualification:
1. M.Sc. (Physics) from Punjabi University Patiala (1994-1996)
2. M. Phil (Physics) from Chaudhary Devi Lal University, Sirsa (2005-2006)
3. M.Tech (Computer Sci. & Engg.) from Technical University, Hisar (1999-2000) Work Experience:
1. 1 year teaching experience at KV School, Faridkot cantt. (1997- 1998) Classes 10+1 & 10+2 (Med./ Non Med.)
2. 15 years at Government Brijindra College, Faridkot (Sept. 2000 to till date), teaching classes of 10+1, 10+2 Medical and Non-
Medical, B.Sc. (Non-Med.)- I, II, III.
Professional Experience:
1. Evaluated answer sheets of various classes of Punjabi University, Patiala.
2. Evaluated Answer sheets of B.Sc (Nursing) classes of Baba Farid University of Health Sciences.
3. Many times perform duties of key advisor of various competitive examination of Baba Farid University of Health Sciences, Faridkot."
"Bio-Data Dr. (Mrs) Raman Mahajan, Associate Professor, Government Brijindra College, Faridkot.
Educational Qualification:
1. M.Sc. (Hons School) Chemistry from Punjab University Chandigarh, Department of Chemistry year 1983.
2. M. Phil with distinction from Punjab University, Chandigarh, Department of Chemistry, year 1984.
3. Ph.D. Chemistry (Organic) from Punjab University Chandigarh, Department of Chemistry, year-1989. Work Experience:
1. Govt. Brijindra college, Faridkot from 1990 to till date VINOD KUMAR CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 22 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh Professional Experience:
1. For the last twenty years guiding the PMET Students B.Sc.
Students. Also teaching M.Sc. Classes.
2. Member of Board of studies of Physical Sciences Punjabi University, Patiala.
3. Evaluated Answer sheets of various classes of Punjabi University, Patiala. Acted as Examiner for the various practical exams.
4. Attended National Seminars, also presented papers.
5. Performed the duty of key advisor of various Competitive examinations of Baba Farid University of Health Sciences, Faridkot."
The University has further alleged that it has followed the lead of the All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS), New Delhi, the Post-
Graduate Institute of Medical Education and Research (PGIMER), Chandigarh and the Jawaharlal Institute of Post-Graduate Medical Education and Research (JIPMER), Puducherry, as regards to non-supply of the question paper to the candidates and its uploading on the website. All the aforesaid institutes follow a similar policy of non-disclosure, as confirmed by the University, from the communications in writing. Further examples have been quoted by the University of the National Board of Examination (NBE), New Delhi, about the non-disclosure of the question paper in any form and has alleged that the disclosure and supply of the question paper, at this level, would only promote and facilitate the private coaching centres, mushroomed all over the State and the country and prepares the students for limited questions, based on the question papers already available. Such disclosure or supply would, therefore, be gravely detrimental to the larger academic and public interest. Insofar as the answer key is concerned, it is alleged that the same has already been placed on record with the reply.
VINOD KUMARCWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 23 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh The petitioners filed an application bearing CM No.7531-CWP-
2015 along with an affidavit of one of the petitioners, namely, Divesh Sharma, mentioning names of petitioner Nos.2, 7 and 13, requesting for the perusal of the aforesaid 4 sets of the Question Booklet.
On 09.06.2015, during the course of hearing, it was agreed between the petitioners and the University that only two petitioners may be allowed to peruse the question papers. Thus, the petitioner Nos.2 and 7 were given their question papers in the Court. They spent more than an hour in perusing the question paper in order to find out discrepancies. They handed over two pages to the Court, highlighting the discrepancies in the question paper. The said two pages were made part of the record. At the same time, counsel for the University also handed over proceedings of the meeting of the subject experts held on 18.06.2015, in which the objections raised in CWP Nos.11475 and 12409 of 2015 were explained. Counsel for the University has also handed over answer key in regard to all the four set of questions booklet i.e. A, B, C and D, to the counsel for the petitioners. The report of the subject experts of the University dated 18.06.2015 is also reproduced as under:-
Proceedings of the Meeting of the Subject Experts held on
18.6.2015 regarding explanation of objections raised in CWP No.11475 & 12409 of 2015 CWP No.11475 & 12409 of 2015 CHEMISTRY
1.
Question No.70 in Set - A
Question No.20 in Set - B
Question No.170 in Set - C
Question No.120 in Set - D
VINOD KUMAR
CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 24 )
2015.09.01 14:21
I attest to the accuracy and
authenticity of this document
Chandigarh
In the question, for electron affinity of halogens, which of the following is correct:-
a. Br > F
b. F > Cl
c. Br > Cl
d. F>L
The question has been cancelled due to printing error. Instead of F > I, it has been wrongly printed as F > L. Therefore, award of same weightage to all the students has already been given/recommended.
2. Question No.84 in Set - A Question No.34 in Set - B Question No.184 in Set - C Question No.134 in Set - D Here question is when formaldehyde is treated with KOH, it gives Methanol and any salt which is with the base. So, when formaldehyde is treated with base, which could be KOH or NaOH, which gives rise to Methanol and the first element of the base. The examiner has asked the name of this reaction. There are 4 options :-
a. Perkin's reaction (which relates Benzaldehyde with Acetic Anhydride to give cinnamic acid ) b. Claisen's reaction (which is reaction between Benzaldeyhde and Acetaldehyde to give cinnamaldehyde) c. Cannizarro's reaction (which is reaction between formaldehyde and KOH, which gives Methanol and Potassium salt of the acid. ) d. Knoevenagel's reaction (This is a reaction between Aldehyde or ketone with active methylene compound which gives 'α', 'β-unsaturated acid. It is evident that formaldehyde and KOH reaction is clearly visible as Cannizarro's Reaction.) In reference to the observations made by the petitioner, which is beyond the essence of question that in the question Potassium is written instead of Potassium Formate. It may be mentioned that if in place of KOH NaOH can also be made to react, then reaction would be Methyle Alcohol and Sodium Formate. So, the importance lies in the reaction of Formaldehyde with KOH producing Methanol and Sodium or Potassium, which could be that of formate. So, there is no ambiguity in the statement that when formaldehyde reacts with KOH, it is Cannizarro's reaction and in no way there is other correct option.
3.
Question No.53 in Set - A
Question No.3 in Set - B
VINOD KUMAR
CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 25 )
2015.09.01 14:21
I attest to the accuracy and
authenticity of this document
Chandigarh
Question No.153 in Set - C
Question No.103 in Set - D
The QUESTION states that at 2000 C Hydrogen molecule have velocity 105cm/s. The de Broglie wavelength in this case is approximately:-
The options of this question are:-
a. 2 Ao
b. 1000 Ao
c. 100 Ao
d. 10 Ao
As per the NCERT Book at page No.46 it is very rightly mentioned that this question pertains to Bohr's theory, the formula is :- λ = h k mv Where h is Planck's constant m is the mass of particle and v is velocity. The Paper Setter has asked to find out the wavelength at 200o C Hydrogen Molecule whose mass is 2gms). If the weight is 2gms and have velocity of 105cm/sec., the wavelength comes out to be approximately 1.89 which is approximately 2, which is option a. (2 Ao). On further elaboration, it may be mentioned that when the mass is in Kilograms, then the wavelength comes out to be 1899 approximately. In this question if one uses mass of Hydrogen in the unit of Kilograms, then the wavelength would be 1899 approximately. The Paper setter has asked 4 options i.e. 2 Ao, 1000 Ao, 100 Ao and 10 Ao. With these units, the wavelength is no way near to the four options asked by the Paper Setter. So, from this, it is evident that the units used by him to answer the correct option is 2 gms. It is a prerogative of the Paper Setter that he asks the question in which form and the candidate has to answer among those four options, which are set by the Paper Setter.
4. Question No.71 in Set - A Question No.21 in Set - B Question No.171 in Set - C Question No.121 in Set - D Rayleigh 1892 was pioneer to discover Argon. However, Ramsay 1894 further worked on this and gave it the name. Therefore, the discovery of Argon, goes to the credit of Rayleigh. Lord Rayleigh (1892) observed that atmospheric nitrogen obtained from air by the removal of Oxygen, CO2 and Moisture had a density (about 0.5%) higher than nitrogen prepared by heating ammonium nitrite. This led to the suspicion that some inert gas heavier than nitrogen was present in the Air and this was found to be argon.
NH4NO2 N2 + 2H2O VINOD KUMAR CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 26 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh
In 1894, Ramsay took a purified sample of air (after removing moisture and carbon dioxide) and repeatedly passed it over red hot copper to remove all oxygen (as CuO and then over red hot magnesium 2Cu + O2 2CuO 3 Mg + N2 Mg3N2, To remove all nitrogen (as Mg3N2). The residual gas which was nearly 1% of the volume of air taken was found to be completely unreactive. This inert gas was found to be much denser than nitrogen and gave a spectrum quite different from that of nitrogen. So, the correct option is
(a) i.e. Rayleigh.
BOTANY
1. Question No.147 in Set - A Question No.97 in Set - B Question No.47 in Set - C Question No.197 in Set - D The question is if the length of double helical DNA is 1.7 meter, the number of base spares present in DNA is :-
a. 5 x 109
b. 1.7 x 109
c. 3.4 x 109
d. 1.7 x 105
This question has already been cancelled due to printing error and an award of same weightage to all the students has been recommended.
2. Question No.147 in Set - A Question No.97 in Set - B Question No.47 in Set - C Question No.197 in Set - D Objection raised by the petitioner pertains to the above question with regard to the numeric value i.e. 105 instead of 105 , which has already been cancelled.
3.
Question No.136 in Set - A
Question No.86 in Set - B
Question No.36 in Set - C
Question No.186 in Set - D
VINOD KUMAR
CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 27 )
2015.09.01 14:21
I attest to the accuracy and
authenticity of this document
Chandigarh
The question is growth in plant is :-
a. Only determinate
b. Only indeterminate
c. Mostly determinate
d. Both determinate and indeterminate
The growth in plant is generally indeterminate (unlimited/continuous growth). But there are plants/organs which show determinate growth (limited/definite growth). This may be further elaborated as follows:-
Example No.1 :- Branching pattern in higher plants are of basically two types i.e. i. Racemose ii. Cymose In RACEMOSE type of branching, the stem shows unlimited growth because of the activity of its growing point throughout the life of plant. Therefore, this is indeterminate type of growth. In CYMOSE type of branching, the stem shows limited growth because of the death/modification of growing point. Thus, it is indeterminate type of growth.
Example No.2:-
Annual plants show determinate growth, set flower and fruit and ultimately die.
Example No.3:-
Plant parts having definite shape (leaves, fruits, flowers) show determinate growth. Therefore, answer to the above-mentioned question is option (d.) Both determinate and indeterminate.
PHYSICS
1.
Question No.11 in Set - A Question No.161 in Set - B Question No.111 in Set - C Question No.61 in Set - D In the depletion region of a diode has four options, as per the example of NCERT,. However, the correct option is (c).
Option (a) i.e. "There are no mobile charges" is incorrect because the statement should have been "There are no mobile charge carrier (electrons & holes)". There are atoms in the Universe, which are VINOD KUMAR CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 28 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh electrically neutral, which means it has equal number of positive and negative charges (Electron and Proton respectively). If the negative charge carrier is taken out from the atom, it becomes immobile positive donor ion. So, therefore, the correct statement in depletion region of the diode should have been that "There are No Mobile Charge Carrier" in place of "There Are No Mobile Charges".
Option (b) i.e. "Equal number of holes and electrons exist making the region neutral". This statement in relation to depletion region of diode is wrong because there are equal number of positive immobile donor ions and negative immobile acceptor ions make the depletion layer neutral.
Option (d) "Immobile Charged Ions Exist" in depletion layer is wrong, because they must exist in equal number. Thus, the statement should have been "Equal Number of Immobile Charged Ions Exist".
Option (c) "Recombination of holes and electrons has taken place" in the depletion region of the diode. This statement is correct, because this makes the depletion layer electrically neutral (equal number of electrons and holes).
2. Question No.4 in Set - A Question No.154 in Set - B Question No.104 in Set - C Question No.54 in Set - D Question is :- An astronomical refractive telescope has an objective focal length of 20 m and eyepiece of focal length 2 cm In the NCERT Book "Physics Exemplar Problems Class XII page 58, Q.9.16 and answer page 153 - The question reads as "An astronomical refractive telescope has an objective focal length of 20 cm and eyepiece of focal length 2 cm". There is glaring difference in the objective focal length 20 m and 20 cm. It is bound to change the options, which have been mentioned in the NCERT Book as well as in question, which is set by the Paper-Setter. Thus, option (a), (b), (c) are wrong and option (d) is the only correct. All the options (a), (b), (c) are related with the objective focal length and focal length of eyepiece, which has been changed by the Paper-Setter in this question, as compared to the statement of NCERT.
3.
Question No.16 in Set - A
Question No.166 in Set - B
Question No.116 in Set - C
Question No.66 in Set - D
VINOD KUMAR
CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 29 )
2015.09.01 14:21
I attest to the accuracy and
authenticity of this document
Chandigarh
The basic principle of amplitude modulation is that it is used to carry weak audio signals to cover long distance over the ground and not used for transmission of strong carrier signals. So, from point of view of Paper Setter, given question is purely related to weak audio signals.
Whereas, the correct options given in the NCERT is (b) and (d). It is important to note that in option (d), both audio signals and carrier signals exist. Thereafter, option (d) is wrong.
Since, option (b) carries only audio signals, which is the theme of question that is why this option (b) is absolutely correct.
4. Question No.15 in Set - A Question No.165 in Set - B Question No.115 in Set - C Question No.65 in Set - D "An audio signal 15 KHz frequency cannot be transmitted over long distances without modulation because:-
Of Option(a) - which is correct i.e. "the size of required antenna would be at least 5 km which is not convenient". One can easily understand from the day to day experience that the antennas which we usually see are much smaller and it is only in meters, but certainly not in kilometers. It is pertinent to mention that the only important issue in audio signal communication is height of transmitting antenna. Rest all the things are secondary. Since the Paper-Setter has asked only one option, the option
(a) is the only most appropriate option, while rest of the statements are relative. It is further clarified that the option (d) which indicates that the "effective power transmitted would be very low, if the size of antenna is less than 5 km." whereas in the question according to 15 KHz, the length of the antenna is 5 km, which strongly contradicts the option (d).
Regarding option (b), which indicates that audio signals cannot be transmitted through sky waves. It may be made clear that audio signals are transmitted only through modulation and not through sky waves.
5. Question No.22 in Set - A Question No.172 in Set - B Question No.122 in Set - C Question No.72 in Set - D The question states that "a motorboat covers a given distance in 6 hours moving downstream on a river. it covers the same distance in 10 hours moving upstream. The time it takes to cover the same in still water is _______".
The objection raised by the petitioner is that the paper-setter has repeated the words in statement. It is emphatically contended that there is no repetition of words technically. The theme of the question is that the same distance covered in three different situations i.e. Upstream, Downstream and Still Water. These are three different situations and one VINOD KUMAR CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 30 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh can easily imagine that the time taken against the stream, along the stream and in still water would be different.
6. Question No.40 in Set - A Question No.190 in Set - B Question No.140 in Set - C Question No.90 in Set - D In question booklet the statement of question is given below:-
A particle is acted simultaneously by mutually perpendicular simple harmonic motions x = a cost t and y = a sin t. The trajectory of motion of the particle will be _____________".
Whereas the petitioner is quoting that the question in booklet is as under:-
"The displacement of a string is given by y (x,t) = 0.06 sin (2 πx/3) cos (120 πt), where x and y are in m and tin s."
Any simple person can easily differentiate between these two statements. Whatever both statements are not related to each other. Therefore, it seems that the petitioners are confused and making false statements by virtue of his/her memory.
7. Question No.32 in Set - A Question No.182 in Set - B Question No.132 in Set - C Question No.82 in Set - D Question is "A bullet of mass m fired at 300 to the horizontal leaves the barrel of the gun with a velocity v. The bullet hits a soft target at a height h above the ground while it is moving downward and emerges out with half the kinetic energy it had before hitting the target. Which of the following statements is correct in respect of bullet after it emerges out of the target ?
The paper-setter of course has taken the question from the NCERT Book, where the bullet is fired at 30o and there are 6 options in the NCERT Book. The options in our question papers are only four. So, the paper-setter has modified the question to see the applicability of mind of student by changing the value to 300. You will agree that if the person is on the ground, he can fire from 0 to 180o . In order to fire at 300o the candidate has to apply his mind and the only plausible answer is that the shooter is standing at a height and can shoot at total of 360o whereas the question asked is for shooting at 300o. The only correct option with respect to given value in question booklet is (c). Whereas rest of the options/statements are not possible at this angle. Such situations are invariably seen in various movies where the shooter shoots from the height, on the objects below it and he can hit correctly by making parabola and it is only with the parabola, the bullet moves.
VINOD KUMARCWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 31 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh 8. Question No.10 in Set - A Question No.160 in Set - B Question No.110 in Set - C Question No.60 in Set - D
In this question, according to the petitioner in the NCERT Book there are two correct options i.e. options (b) and (c). It may be clarified that out of these two options, only option (b) is correct because it is mentioned in its proper units i.e milli ampere, whereas option (c) is wrong because it should have been mentioned in micro ampere not in milli ampere and the difference between two is 1000 times. The options
(a) and (d) are not correct according to the data given in the question.
9. Question No.28 in Set - A Question No.178 in Set - B Question No.128 in Set - C Question No.78 in Set - D In the objection, the petitioner seems that this question has two options as per NCERT Book i.e. option (a) and option (c).
The theme of the question is that spring is tied on one end and is pulled/stretched from the other end and then released. It is very important to mention that the Spring can be released after pulling/stretching a mild distance, moderate distance and at a extreme distance i.e. totally stretched. Option (a) would have been correct, if the spring is released from the extreme position, which is not mentioned, therefore, this option is wrong. Whereas the option (c) is correct because speed is maximum always at equilibrium position.
10. Question No.6 in Set - A Question No.156 in Set - B Question No.106 in Set - C Question No.56 in Set - D Question is "A particle is dropped from height H. The de Broglie wavelength of the particle as a function of a height is proportional to":-
The options given in the NCERT Book are four in number i.e. a. H b. H ½ c. H0 d. H -½.
Whereas, the paper-setter has mentioned :-
a. H b. H ½ c. H0 d. None of the above.
The correct option is (a) i.e. 'H', whereas the correct option i.e. (d) of NCERT is absolutely wrong.VINOD KUMAR
CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 32 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh 11. Question No.38 in Set - A Question No.188 in Set - B Question No.138 in Set - C Question No.88 in Set - D
Question is : "Án ideal gas undergoes isothermal process from some initial state i to final state f."
The correct answer is option (b) because in case of ideal gas, no heat is allowed to enter or to leave the given system between initial and final states. So, due to this, there is no change in temperature of the system. As temperature is a measure of heat, so there is no change in heat of the system also. It implies that dQ = 0. Thus the correct option is option (b).
Whereas NCERT has mentioned option (a) and (d) which are no way near to the truth.
(Dr. Navdeep Shekhar) (Dr.Kanwaljit Kaur) (Dr.Raman Mahajan) (Dr. Harjeet Singh) (Dr. D.S.Sidhu), REGISTRAR"
In the meanwhile, an application bearing CM No.7541-CWP-2015 was filed by two applicants, namely, Ms. Manshik and Ms. Khushpreet Kaur, under Order 1 Rule 10 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, to implead them as respondents No.4 and 5 in the first petition.
Notice in the application was issued on 22.06.2015 for 30.06.2015 and on that date, the following order was recorded by the Court in the first petition:-
"Senior counsel representing respondents No.2 and 3 submits that in deference to the pendency of the writ petition, the counseling for allocation of seats has been deferred vide advertisement published in `The Tribune' on 21.06.2015. He, however, requests for a short adjournment for inspecting the file.
Adjourned to 30.06.2015."VINOD KUMAR
CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 33 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh On the adjourned date, another CM No.7571-CWP of 2015 under Order 1 Rule 10 of the CPC, filed by the applicants who had cleared the PMET-
2015 was allowed as there was no objection raised by the petitioners and they were impleaded as respondent Nos.6 to 44 in the first petition.
Further, the University had placed on record the proceedings of the meeting of the subject experts held on 02.07.2015 regarding objections raised by the petitioners to certain questions and/or option(s) of answers of PMET-2015.
The said report is also reproduced as under:-
In CWP No.11475 & 12409 of 2015 Proceedings of the Meeting of the Subject Experts held on July 2, 2015 regarding objections raised by the petitioners to certain questions and/or option(s) of answers of PMET-2015 In CWP No. 11475 of 2015 the petitioners, on the basis of memory, raised objections to alleged mistakes in 16 questions and/or the answer options. These objections were answered by the University in its written statement to the writ petition by way of Annexure R-27, being the proceedings of the meeting of the subject experts held on 8.6.2015.
Subsequently another writ petition, CWP No. 12409 of 2015 was filed by some other candidates of PMET-2015, wherein they objected to questions No.6, 84, 38, 21, 22, 28, 53, 10 and 11 of Question Booklet Set- A. Following the University's reply regarding these questions, they further submitted observations on certain unknown question numbers i.e. objection Nos. (vii), (ix), (x), (xi), (xiv) and (xv) by virtue of their memory as Question Number "not known".
Vide the proceedings of the meeting of the subject experts held on 18.6.2015, the University answered all the aforesaid objections raised to the various questions. The said proceedings were placed before this Hon'ble Court on 19.6.2015 and taken on record vide order dated 19.6.2015, in continuation of Annexure R-27. During the course of the hearing on 19.6.2015, two petitioners in CWP No. 11475 of 2015 were allowed to see the Question Paper in court as offered by the University.
VINOD KUMARCWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 34 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh On doing so, they raised a total of about 40 objections on hand-written sheets submitted to this Hon'ble Court, including objections raised earlier.
All the objections raised and/or questions objected to have been carefully examined by the subject experts. Their consolidated answer to all the said objections/questions are submitted for the kind perusal of this Hon'ble Court.
CONSOLIDATED EXPLANATION OF OBJECTED QUESTIONS Question No.4 in Set - A,154 in Set - B ,104 in Set - C ,54 in Set - D (This objection is not in the First Petition, but it is quoted as Objection No.9 in the Second Petition as well as the objections submitted on 19.6.2015 after seeing the Question Booklet) 1 Contents of An astronomical refractive telescope has an objective focal Question length of 20 m and eyepiece of focal length 2 cm
a) The length of the telescope tube is 20.02 m
b) The magnification is 1000.
c) The image formed is inverted.
d) An objective of a larger aperture will increase the brightness and reduce chromatic aberration of the image.
Contention of That this question is from the Physics Exemplar Problem the Petitioner and its answer is options (a), (b) and (c). Explanation It may be noted that the Paper-Setter has changed the by the statement of the question, where objective Focal Length has University been changed from 20 cm to 20 m. Thus, there is a glaring difference in the statement which is in the N.C.E.R.T. book and that which is in the PMET Question Paper. This change in the objective Focal Length shall change the answer. Thus, in the PMET, the correct option is option (d) instead of petitioners' pleas i.e. options (a), (b) and (c). The Paper Setter has changed the statement, because the most important instructions to the Paper Setter as well as the candidates are that "There is only one correct option" and in case, the candidate does not understand the question, he is to fill oval "e". Thus, it is clarified that in order to have one correct option i.e. "d", the Paper Setter has changed the statement from the NCERT exemplar, which is prerogative of the Paper Setter.
2 Question No.6 of set A, 156 of set B, 106 of set C, 56 of set D (Objection No.3 of the First Petition (para No.17), Objection No.1 in the Second Petition and also the Objection raised on 19.6.2015 after seeing the Question Booklet.) Contents of "A particle is dropped from height H. The de Broglie Question wavelength of the particle as a function of a height is proportional to":-
VINOD KUMARCWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 35 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh (a) H (b) H½ (c) HO (d) None of the above Contention The petitioner has quoted the following options as per of the NCERT Book :- Petitioner (a) H (b) H ½ (c) HO (d) H-½
Explanation The correct option is option (a). Whereas, the options quoted by the as per NCERT Book by the petitioners are wrong except University option (a).
The paper-setter and Key Expert believes that the correct option is option (a) i.e. "H" according to the following calculation:-
3. Question No.8 in Set-A, 158 in Set-B, 108 in Set-C and 58 in Set - D (Hand Written objections raised on 19.6.2015 after seeing the Question Booklet).
Contents of Suppose we consider a large number of containers each the Question containing initially 10000 atoms of a radioactive material with a half life of 1 year. After 1 year, a. All the containers will have 5000 atoms of the material.
b. All the containers will contain the same number of atoms of the material but that number will only be approximately 5000.
c. The containers will in general have different numbers of the atoms of the material but their average will be close to 5000.
d. None of the containers can have more than 5000 atoms.
Contention Radioactivity. As per NCERT Exemplar page 81, Q. No.13.1,
of the answer is (c). Whereas the answer given by the University is
Petitioner option (a).
Explanation The petitioners have alleged the option (c) as correct.
by the
University But, it is elaborated here that from the definition of half life
period of radioactive material, half number of radioactive VINOD KUMAR CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 36 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh material atoms will be left behind after half life period (here half life period is 1 year). So, the option (a) is correct one i.e. "All the containers will have 5000 atoms of the material"
after 1 year".
Decay of radioactive material atoms is independent of number of containers, in which such radioactive material atoms were placed. Thus, the option (c), as alleged by the petitioners is wrong.
4 Question No.9 - Set- A, 159 in Set - B, 109 in Set - C and 59 in Set - D (Hand Written Objection raised on 19.6.2015 after seeing the Question Booklet) Contents of When an electric field is applied across a semiconductor? the Question a. Electrons move from lower energy level to higher energy level in the conduction band.
b. Electrons move from higher energy level to lower energy level in the conduction band.
c. Holes in the valence band move from higher energy level to lower energy level.
d. Holes in the valence band move from lower energy level to higher energy level.
Contention They contended that the options (a), (b) and (d) are correct
of the options.
Petitioner
Explanation When an electric field is applied across a semiconductor, then by the electrons will move from lower energy level to high energy University level in the conduction band. Thus, option (a) is correct. Due to mass of holes (heavier than electrons), cannot move across the semiconductor (Diagram).
Which means option (c) is wrong. Similarly, options (b) and
(d) are also wrong, as both these statements are reciprocal of
(a) and (c). Option (c) as such is wrong itself.
VINOD KUMARCWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 37 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh 5 Question No.10 in Set - A,160 in Set - B ,110 in Set - C ,60 in Set - D (Objection No.4 in the First Petition (para No.17), objection No.12 of the Second Petition and Objection raised on 19.6.2015 after seeing the Question Booklet ) Contents of In a non-transistor circuit, the collector is 10mA. If 95 percent Question of the electrons emitted reach the collector, which of the following statements are true?
a) The emitter current will be 8 mA.
b) The emitter current will be 10.53 mA.
c) The base current will be 0.53 mA.
d) The base current will be 2 mA.
Contention 1. The petitioner in the initial petition has contended that of the this question has two options i.e. .53 mA and 10.53 mA Petitioner were correct.
2. In the second petition, the petitioners contended that options (b) and (c) are correct options.
3. 3rd Objection of the petitioner is of use of word "non" Explanation In this question, according to the petitioner in the NCERT by the Book there are two correct options i.e. options (b) and (c). It University may be clarified that out of these two options, only option (b) is correct because it is mentioned in its proper units i.e milli ampere, whereas option (c) is wrong because it should have been mentioned in micro ampere not in milli ampere and the difference between two is 1000 times. The options (a) and (d) are not correct according to the data given in the question. This question has already been answered, but the same has been again challenged because of the word "non" in the Question.
This is in relation to Transistors, which are of two types i.e.
(a) n-p-n and (b) p-n-p.
The options have been asked in relation to 'non' which is as such n-p-n.
It is agreed that in the question paper, it is written as 'non', but when a student of Physics knows that there is no other transistor, "non" can easily be presumed as 'n-p-n' transistor, which is a typographical mistake. The core issue in this question is that out of the four options, as per petitioners' plea there are two correct options i.e. option (b) and (c). Whereas the Paper-Setter and the Key Expert independently believes that only option "d" is correct, because option (b), which is related to micro ampere i.e. µA is wrong. Rest of the options i.e. (a) and (d) are wrong because by virtue of the following equation Ie = Ic + Ib VINOD KUMAR CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 38 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh Since the result of this calculation is 10.53 mA. So the first option where emitter current is 8 mA, which is wrong, while the option (d) of base current of 2 mA is wrong because base current by calculation is 0.53 x 103 µA.
6 Question No.11 in Set - A, 161 in Set - B,111 in Set - C ,61 in Set - D (Objection No.2 of the First Petition (para No.17), Objection No.13 of the Second Petition and Objection raised on 19.6.2015 after seeing the Question Booklet ) Contents of In the depletion region of a diode Question
a) There are no mobile charges.
b) Equal number of holes and electrons exist, making the region neutral
c) Recombination of holes and electrons has taken place.
d) Immobile charged ions exist.
Contention 1. In the first petition, the petitioner has contended that of the this has two correct options.
Petitioner
2. In the second petition, the petitioners contended that three options i.e. options (a), (b) and (d) are correct as per NCERT Exemplar.
Explanation In the depletion region of a diode has four options, as per the by the example of NCERT,. However, the correct option is (c). University Option (a) i.e. "There are no mobile charges" is incorrect because the statement should have been "There are no mobile charge carrier (electrons & holes)". There are atoms in the Universe, which are electrically neutral, which means it has equal number of positive and negative charges (Electron and Proton respectively). If the negative charge carrier is taken out from the atom, it becomes immobile positive donor ion. So, therefore, the correct statement in depletion region of the diode should have been that "There are No Mobile Charge Carrier" in place of "There Are No Mobile Charges".
Option (b) i.e. "Equal number of holes and electrons exist making the region neutral". This statement in relation to depletion region of diode is wrong because there are equal number of positive immobile donor ions and negative immobile acceptor ions make the depletion layer neutral.
Option (d) "Immobile Charged Ions Exist" in depletion layer is wrong, because they must exist in equal number. Thus, the statement should have been "Equal Number of Immobile Charged Ions Exist".
Option (c) "Recombination of holes and electrons has taken VINOD KUMAR CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 39 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh place" in the depletion region of the diode. This statement is correct, because this makes the depletion layer electrically neutral (equal number of electrons and holes).
7 Question No.12 in Set-A, 162 in Set -B, 112 in Set - C and 62 in Set - D (Hand Written Objection raised on 19.6.2015 after seeing the Question Booklet ) Contents of Three waves, A, B and C of frequencies 1600 kHz, 5 MHz the Question and 60 MHz, respectively, are to be transmitted from one place to another. Which of the following is the most appropriate mode of communication:
a. A is transmitted via space wave while B and C are transmitted via sky wave.
b. A is transmitted via ground wave, B via sky wave and C via space wave.
c. B and C are transmitted via ground wave while A is transmitted via sky wave.
d. B is transmitted via ground wave while A and C are transmitted via space wave.
Contention Communication. Answer given - C.
of the
Petitioner As per NCERT Exemplar (Q. 15.1 Page 98 of +2) - Answer B
Explanation Three waves, A, B and C of frequencies 1600 kHz, 5 MHz and of the 60 MHz, respectively are to be transmitted from one place to University another. Which of the following is the most appropriate mode of communication:-
Due to very high frequencies of wave B and C, they are transmitted via ground wave and due to low frequency of wave A, it is transmitted via sky wave. This is the correct option i.e. option (c).
The other options i.e. option (a) A wave is transmitted via space wave while B and C waves are transmitted via sky waves. Due to given frequencies, such transmission of given waves is not possible. Same will happen for options (b) and option (d).
8, Question No.14 in Set - A, 164 in Set-B, 114 in Set-C and 64 in Set-D (Objection raised in hand-written objections i.e. the objections raised on 19.6.2015 after seeing the Question Booklet).
Contents of A basic communication system consists of the Question A. transmitter.
B. Information source.
C. User of information.
VINOD KUMARCWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 40 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh D. Channel E. Receiver Choose the correct sequence a. ABCDE. b. BADEC c. BDACE d. BEADC Contention Communication - Answer given is (c). Whereas, the of the petitioners allege that as per NCERT Exemplar, Q. No.15.8 Petitioner Page - 100, the correct option is (b).
Explanation To transfer any information from one place to another place, by the it passes through few steps. First of all, there has to be some University source of information (B). This information can pass through various mediums viz. Air, Ground, Sky, Space. Such medium depends upon the specific channel (D). Then it requires some specific Antenna (Transmitter) i.e. (T). There can be a group of useful as well as un-useful information. So, it requires which type of information either useful information or un- useful information is to be registered. For this purpose, we will collect information with the help of user of information (C). Thereafter, it requires some specified collector(receiver) i.e. (E).
(Block Diagram) Thus, on the basis of above information/process, only the option (c) is correct i.e. order "BDACE".
Petitioners contend that option (b) is correct, which means the order of Block should be "BADEC". As mentioned above, at transmitter-(T), it can have a group of useful information as well as some un-useful information. In order to receive only useful information, first of all, it must require user of required information (C), but not Receiver (E). So, user information block must be prior to Receiver block. Hence, in this manner the option (b) (alleged by the petitioners) is wrong.
9 Question No.15 in Set - A,165 in Set - B ,115 in Set - C ,65 in Set - D (Objection No.10 in the Second Petition) Contents of An audio signal of 15 kHz frequency cannot be transmitted Question over long distances without modulation because VINOD KUMAR CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 41 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh
a) the size of the required antenna would be at least 5 km which is not convenient.
b) The audio signal cannot be transmitted through sky waves.
c) The size of the required antenna would be at least 20km, which is not convenient.
d) Effective power transmitted would be very low, if the size of the antenna is less than 5 km.
Contention That the options (a), (b) and (d) are correct.
of the
Petitioner
Explanation "An audio signal 15 KHz frequency cannot be transmitted by the over long distances without modulation because:-
University Of Option(a) - which is correct i.e. "the size of required antenna would be at least 5 km which is not convenient". One can easily understand from the day to day experience that the antennas which we usually see are much smaller and it is only in meters, but certainly not in kilometers.
It is pertinent to mention that the only important issue in audio signal communication is height of transmitting antenna. Rest all the things are secondary. Since the Paper-Setter has asked only one option, the option (a) is the only most appropriate option, while rest of the statements are relative. It is further clarified that the option (d) which indicates that the "effective power transmitted would be very low, if the size of antenna is less than 5 km." whereas in the question according to 15 KHz, the length of the antenna is 5 km, which strongly contradicts the option (d).
Regarding option (b), which indicates that audio signals cannot be transmitted through sky waves, it may be made clear that audio signals are transmitted only through modulation and not through sky waves.
10 Question No.16 in Set - A,166 in Set - B ,116 in Set - C ,66 in Set - D (Objection No.11 in the Second Petition) Contents of Audio sine waves of 3kHz frequency are used to amplitude Question modulate a carrier signal of 1.5 MHz which of the following statements are true?
a) The side band frequencies are 1506 kHz and 1494 kHz
b) The bandwidth required for amplitude modulation is 6 kHz.
c) The bandwidth required for amplitude modulation is 3 MHz.
d) The side band frequencies are 1503 kHz and 1497 kHz.
Contention As per petitioners, the answer/communication is (b) and (d)
of the
VINOD KUMAR
CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 42 )
2015.09.01 14:21
I attest to the accuracy and
authenticity of this document
Chandigarh
Petitioner
Explanation The basic principle of amplitude modulation is that it is used by the to carry weak audio signals to cover long distance over the University ground and not used for transmission of strong carrier signals.
So, from point of view of Paper Setter, given question is purely related to weak audio signals.
Whereas, the correct options given in the NCERT is (b) and
(d). It is important to note that in option (d), both audio signals and carrier signals exist. Thereafter, option (d) is wrong.
Since, option (b) carries only audio signals, which is the theme of question that is why this option (b) is absolutely correct.
11 Question No.17 in Set-A, 167 in Set -B, 117 in Set - C and 67 in Set - D (Objection raised on 19.6.2015 after seeing the Question Booklet ) Contents of In amplitude modulation, the modulation index m, is kept less the Question than or equal to 1 because a. m> 1, will result in interference between carrier frequency and message frequency, resulting into distortion.
b. m>1 will result in overlapping of both side bands resulting into loss of information.
c. m>1 will result in change in phase between carrier signal and message signal.
d. m>1 indicates amplitude of message signal greater than amplitude of carrier signal resulting into distortion.
Contention The petitioners have contended that it has multiple answers
of the i.e. (b) and (d). They have referred the NCERT Exemplar
Petitioner Book's Question No.15.14 at Page No.102
Explanation In amplitude modulation, the modulation index m, is kept less
by the than or equal to 1 because
University
With the value of the modulation index (m) greater than one, only the correct option out of given four options (a), (b), (c) and (d), the option (b) is correct because with the value of the modulation index (m) greater than one, there will be overlapping of the side bands resulting into loss of information as shown below:-
VINOD KUMARCWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 43 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh The option (d) is wrong because with m>1, amplitude of message signal greater than amplitude of carrier signal resulting into distortion. This statement would have been correct had it been "m>1 indicates amplitude of modulating signal greater than amplitude of carrier signal resulting into distortion".
12 Question No.21 and No.26 in Set-A, 171 in Set -B, 121 in Set - C and 71 in Set - D (Objection No.10 in the First Petition (para No.17), Objection No.(iv) in the Second Petition and Question No.21 in the hand written objections i.e. the objections raised on 19.6.2015 after seeing the Question Booklet). Contents of During inelastic collision between two bodies, which of the the Question following quantities always remain conserved ?
a. Total kinetic energy b. Total Mechanical energy c. Total linear momentum d. Speed of each body Contention Questions No.21 & 26 are repeated (Same question, but of the different answers in both).
Petitioner Explanation On the basis of concept of inelastic collision, the correct by the option of question No.21 is option(c). Also in Q. No.26 of University Set-A, which has been repeated. Here the correct option is option (c) also, which has been mis-printed as option (a), which is wrong in answer key.
It is recommended that Question No.26 be cancelled and all the candidates of PMET-2015 be given equal marks for this question, whether or not they have attempted this question.
13 Question No.19 & 22 in Set - A,172 in Set - B ,122 in Set - C ,72 in Set - D (Objection No.9 in the First Petition, Objection No.(iv) in the Second Petition and hand written objections i.e. objections raised on 19.6.2015 VINOD KUMAR CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 44 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh after seeing the Question Booklet) Contents of A motorboat covers a given distance in 6 hours moving Question downstream on a river. It covers the same distance in 10 hours moving upstream. The time it takes to cover the same distance in still water is ________
a) 6.5 hours b) 8 hours c) 9 hours d) 7.5 hours.
Contention Questions No.19 & 22 are repeated (Same question, but
of the different answers in both).
Petitioner
Explanation 1) The question states that "a motorboat covers a given
by the distance in 6 hours moving downstream on a river. it
University covers the same distance in 10 hours moving upstream.
The time it takes to cover the same in still water is _______".
The objection raised by the petitioner is that the paper- setter has repeated the words in statement. It is emphatically contended that there is no repetition of words technically. The theme of the question is that the same distance covered in three different situations i.e. Upstream, Downstream and Still Water. These are three different situations and one can easily imagine that the time taken against the stream, along the stream and in still water would be different.
2) On the basis of calculations, the correct option of question No.22 is option (c). Also in Question No.19 of Set-A, which has been repeated, here the correct option is option (c) also, which has been mis-printed as option
(b) in answer key.
It is recommended that Question No.19 be cancelled and all the candidates of PMET-2015 be given equal marks for this question, whether or not they have attempted this question.
14 Question No.27 in Set-A, 177 in Set -B, 127 in Set - C and 77 in Set - D (Objection raised in the hand written objections i.e. the objections raised on 19.6.2015 after seeing the Question Booklet) Contents of Which of the following pairs of physical quantities does not the Question have same dimensional formula?
a. Work and torque.
b. Angular momentum and Planck's constant. c. Tension and surface tension.
d. Impulse and linear momentum.
Contention Units & Dimension. Answer given by the University is (b).
VINOD KUMARCWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 45 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh of the But as per NCERT Exemplar Book, page 6, Q. 2.6, the Petitioner correct answer is (c). Explanation Option (a): work and torque by the University • Dimensional formula of work = Force x Distance = M1L1T-2 x L1 = M1L2T-2 • Dimensional formula of Torque = Force x Perpendicular distance = Force x Distance
(because perpendicular distance is also the form of distance) = M1L1T-2 x L1 = M1L2T-2 Therefore, work and Torque have same dimensional formulas.
Option (c): Tension and surface tension * Dimensional formula of Tension = Force per unit length = Force / length = M1L1T-2/L1 = M1L0T-2 • Dimensional formula of Surface Tension = Force per unit circumference of surface = Force / length (because circumference of surface is also the form of length) = M1L1T-2/L1 = M1L0T-2 Therefore, Tension and Surface tension have same dimensional formulas.
Option (d):Impulse and Linear Momentum • Dimensional formula of Impulse = Force x Time = M1L1T-2 x T1 = M1L1T-1 VINOD KUMAR CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 46 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh • Dimensional formula of Linear Momentum According to Linear Momentum - Impulse Theorem, Impulse is defined as change in Linear Momentum. Therefore, Impulse = change in Linear Momentum = Mass x Velocity = M1 x L1T-1 = M1L1T-1 Therefore, impulse and linear momentum have same dimensional formulas.
Option (b): Angular momentum and Plancks constant. • Dimensional formula of Angular momentum = Linear momentum x Distance = M1L1T-1 x L1 = M1L2T-1 • Dimensional formula of Plancks constant = Energy Per Unit Time = Energy/Time =Force x Distance / Time =M1 L1T-2 x L1 / T1 =M1L2T-3 Therefore angle momentum and Plancks constant have no same dimensional formulas. Therefore, option (b) is correct.
15 Question No.28 in Set - A,178 in Set - B ,128 in Set - C ,78 in Set - D (Objection No.1 in the First petition (para No.17), Objection No.5 in the Second Petition and also in the hand written objections i.e. the objections raised on 19.6.2015 after seeing the Question Booklet) Contents of A spring with one end attached to a mass and the other to a Question rigid support is stretched and released.
a) Magnitude of acceleration, when just released is maximum.
b) Magnitude of acceleration, when at equilibrium position, is maximum
c) Speed is maximum when mass is at equilibrium position.
d) Magnitude of displacement is always maximum whenever speed is minimum.
Contention The petitioner has contended two options as correct options
of the i.e. option (a) and option (c).
Petitioner
VINOD KUMAR
CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 47 )
2015.09.01 14:21
I attest to the accuracy and
authenticity of this document
Chandigarh
Explanation In the objection, the petitioner seems that this question has by the two options as per NCERT Book i.e. option (a) and option University (c).
The theme of the question is that spring is tied on one end and is pulled/stretched from the other end and then released. It is very important to mention that the Spring can be released after pulling/stretching a mild distance, moderate distance and at a extreme distance i.e. totally stretched. Option (a) would have been correct, if the spring is released from the extreme position, which is not mentioned, therefore, this option is wrong. Whereas the option (c) is correct because speed is maximum always at equilibrium position.
16 Question No.29 in Set-A, 179 in Set -B, 129 in Set - C and 79 in Set - D (Hand written objections i.e. the objections raised on 19.6.2015 after seeing the Question Booklet) Contents of Three vectors, A, B and C add up to zero. Find which is false. the Question a. (A x B) x C is not zero unless, B,C are parallel b. (A x B).C is not zero unless, B,C are parallel c. If A,B,C define a plane, (AxB)xC is in that plane d. (AxB).C=|A||B||C| C2 =A2 + B2 Contention Vectors NCERT Exemplar page 21. Q. No.4.9. of the 1) Answer given - B. Correct answer as per book = C. Petitioner
2) "d" option no use of super-script. NCERT Exemplar Page - 58 Explanation The paper setter has asked to identify the false statement.
by the
University Options (a), (c) and (d) are True Statements. Thus, these
options cannot be the correct answer because the paper-setter has asked to identify the False statement.
In option (b), these vectors become zero when B & C are parallel. Whereas in this option, it is mentioned that these vectors do not become zero. That is why this statement is false, which has been asked to identify by the Paper Setter.
Rest of all the statements i.e. (a), (c) and (d) are correct statements and as per the demand of question, are wrong options.
Any two vectors (e.g. mentioned as Vector A, B & C) can be multiplied through two mathematical operations. If resultant physical quantity after multiplication is scaler (only magnitude), then operation is known as Dot Product (.)and if resultant physical quantity after multiplication is vector (both magnitude and direction), then the operation is known as VINOD KUMAR CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 48 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh Cross Product (x). Such operations (e.g. multiplication between two vectors) have been clearly mentioned in the options of Question Booklet.
Moreover, it is important to mention here that in books like University Physics at secondary level (W.Feyman et al), there is no use of other Vector Symbols like Superscripts (as mentioned by the petitioner). Only Dot Product and Cross Product are mentioned and are sufficient.
17 Question No.32 in Set - A,182 in Set - B ,132 in Set - C ,82 in Set - D (Objection No.15 of the Second Petition and Question No.32 in the Handwritten objections i.e. the objections raised on 19.6.2015 after seeing the Question Booklet).
Contents of A bullet of mass m fired at 300 to the horizontal leaves the Question barrel of the gun with a velocity v. The bullet hits a soft target at a height h above the ground while it is moving downward and emerges out with half the kinetic energy it had before hitting the target. Which of the following statements is correct in respect of bullet after it emerges out of the target ?
a) The velocity of the bullet will be reduced to half its initial value.
b) The velocity of the bullet will be more than half of its earlier velocity.
c) The bullet will continue to move along the same parabolic path
d) The bullet will move in a different parabolic path.
Contention 300 angle instead of 30° and there are also 2 correct options
of the i.e. options (b) and (d)
Petitioner
Explanation Question is "A bullet of mass m fired at 300 to the horizontal
by the leaves the barrel of the gun with a velocity v. The bullet hits a
University soft target at a height h above the ground while it is moving
downward and emerges out with half the kinetic energy it had before hitting the target. Which of the following statements is correct in respect of bullet after it emerges out of the target?
The paper-setter of course has taken the question from the NCERT Book, where the bullet is fired at 30o and there are 6 options in the NCERT Book. The options in our question papers are only four. So, the paper-setter has modified the question to see the applicability of mind of student by changing the value to 300. You will agree that if the person is on the ground, he can fire from 0 to 180o . In order to fire at 300o the candidate has to apply his mind and the only plausible answer is that the shooter is standing at a height and can shoot at total of 360o whereas the question asked is for shooting at 300o. The only correct option with respect to given VINOD KUMAR CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 49 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh value in question booklet is (c). Whereas rest of the options/statements are not possible at this angle. Such situations are invariably seen in various movies where the shooter shoots from a height, on the objects below it and he can hit correctly by making parabola and it is only with the parabola, the bullet moves.
18 Question No.38 in Set - A,188 in Set - B,138 in Set - C,88 in Set - D (Objection No.11 of the First Petition (para No.17), Objection No.15 in the Second Petition and Question No.38 in the hand-written objections i.e. the objections raised on 19.6.2015 after seeing the Question Booklet) Contents of An ideal gas undergoes isothermal process from some initial Question state i to final state f. Choose correct alternatives.
a) dU=0 b) dQ = 0 c) dQ = dU d) dQ = dW
Contention As per NCERT exemplar problems of 10+2, the correct
of the options given are a) and d) whereas the committee has
Petitioner wrongly declared answer dQ = 0 as correct option.
Explanation The total energy of a system may be divided into two
by the parts- (1). The internal energy and (2) the external energy
University
The internal energy (U) consists of the kinetic energy of molecular motion and potential energy of intermolecular forces.
The external energy of a system is measured by the work (W) which would be performed by the system in expanding from initial state (I.S) to final state (F.S). Therefore total energy (E) of the system is given by:
E = U+W Let us suppose that a quantity of heat "dQ" is absorbed by a system from an external source, as a consequence of which the pressure, volume and temperature of the system change and system reaches to final state.
Let in initial state (I.S), E= Total Energy of the system U= Internal Energy of the system W= Work done by the system.
Let in final state (F.S), E+dE = Total Energy of the system U+dU = Internal Energy of the system VINOD KUMAR CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 50 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh W+dW = Work done by the system.
Therefore, the change in energy of the system with absorption of heat energy 'dQ' from initial state (I.S) to final state (F.S.)is given by:
E+dE -E =U+dU-U+W+dW-W dE= dU+dW By the principle of conservation of energy, the change in energy of the system must be equal to heat energy absorbed by the system.
Therefore, dQ = dE = dU + dW. This is known as first law of thermodynamics As mentioned in question, our system is ideal gas system. For such system heat energy is not allowed to enter the system as well as to leave the system.Therefore, there is no change in energy of the system. Which implies that (dE) is equal to zero.
Or dQ=dE=dU+dW=0 Or dQ=0 .This is the correct option that is option (b).
Also, from above equation,
0=dU+dW,
Or dU= - (dW),
Or dW = - (dU).
• The option (d) that is dQ = dW is wrong, because by calculations dW = - (dU) instead of dW = dQ. So the option ( d ) is wrong.
The option (a), that is, dU = 0 is also wrong, because by calculations dU = -( dW) instead of dU = 0. So the option (a) is also wrong.
19 Question No.40 in Set - A ,190 in Set - B ,140 in Set - C ,90 in Set - D (Objection No.7 in the Second Petition) Contents of A particle is acted simultaneously by mutually perpendicular Question simple harmonic motions x = a cost t and y = a sin t. The trajectory of motion of the particle will be ______.
VINOD KUMARCWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 51 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh a) an ellipse b) A parabola c) A circle d) A straight line Contention The petitioner is quoting that the question in booklet is as of the under:- Petitioner
"The displacement of a string is given by y (x,t) = 0.06 sin (2 πx/3) cos (120 πt), where x and y are in m and tin s."
They alleged that this question has two correct options i.e. options (b) and (c).
Explanation The statement, which the petitioner is contending as per the by the NCERT Book has not been given by the Paper-Setter, where University the statement is grossly different. Thus, the answers as per NCERT Book are not relevant to the statement given by the petitioners, as this question (as stated above by the petitioner) has not been asked and correct option in the statement as per the asked question of question booklet is option is (d).
20 Question no.42 in Set-A, 192 in Set - B, 142 in Set-C and 92 in Set-D. (Objection No.14 in the Second Petition and Question No.42 in the hand- written objections i.e. the objections raised on 19.6.2015 after seeing the Question Booklet) Contents of A train, standing in a station yard, blows a whistle of the question frequency 400 Hz in still air. The wind starts blowing in the direction from the yard to the station with a speed of 10 m/s. Given that the speed of sound in still air is 340 m/s, a. the frequency of sound as heard by an observer standing on the platform is 400 Hz.
b. the speed of sound for the observer standing on the platform is 350 m/s.
c. the frequency of sound as heard by the observer standing on the platform will increase.
d. the frequency of sound as heard by the observer standing on the platform will decrease.
Contention The petitioner contends that it has two correct options i.e.
of the options (a) and (b).
petitioner
Explanation In the objection the petitioners seem that this question has by the two correct options i.e. option (a) and (b). University Since the Observer is standing on the Platform and Train is standing in the yard, the speed of the sound in the still Air is 340 m/s. Since the wind starts blowing in the direction of the yard to platform with a speed of 10 m/s, the question pertains to the speed and not to the frequency and the Observer will experience the speed of sound, as some of the sound of still VINOD KUMAR CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 52 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh Air will plus (+) speed of the wind as per the Doppler Effect, which indicates that when the two options are leaving in the opposite direction/coming close to each other, the relative speed is added while when they go apart, relative speed is substracted (-). Further, option (a) pertains to the frequency, whereas the question is related to the relative velocity. So, option (a) is not relevant. Thus, option (b) is correct option.
21 Question No.45 in Set-A, 195 in Set -B, 145 in Set - C and 95 in Set - D (Hand written objections i.e. the objections raised on 19.6.2015 after seeing the Question Booklet) Contents of A current carrying circular loop of radius R is placed in the x- the Question y plane with centre at the origin. Half of the loop with x > 0 is now bent so that it now lies in the y-z plane.
a. The magnitude of magnetic moment now diminishes b. The magnetic moment does not change.
c. The magnitude of B at (0.0.z), z>> R increases. d. The magnitude of B at (0.0.z), z>> R is unchanged.
Contention Magnetic field. NCERT exemplary page 23 of 10+2 of 4.3. of the Answer given - C. Answer by book - A. Petitioner Explanation A current carrying circular loop of radius R is placed in the x- of the y plane with centre at the origin. Half of the loop x > 0 is now University bent so that it now lies in the y-z plane.
According to the calculations mentioned below:-
the magnitude of the magnetic moment now diminishes, which is option (a), is wrong, as the magnitude of magnetic moment decreases as per above Formula.
There is material difference between words "Diminishes" and "Decreases" i.e. Diminishes means Disappear after sometime, whereas 'Decreases' means Getting Reduced for sometime before Diminishing.VINOD KUMAR
CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 53 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh The option (b) indicates that the magnetic moment does not change, but as per above Formula, it decreases, which means it changes. Thus, this option (b) is wrong.
Coming to the option (d) (alleged by the petitioner), the magnitude of B at (0.0.z), z >> R is unchanged. Thus, this option is also wrong, because 'z' co-ordinate is variable. Since the 'z' is variable, so magnitude of magnetic field will change, whereas the statement of the Question says that it is "unchanged". That is why it is wrong option.
22 Question No.47 in Set - A, 197 in Set-B, 147 in Set - C and 97 in Set - D (Hand written objections i.e. the objections raised on 19.6.2015 after seeing the Question Booklet) Contents of If the rms current in a 50 Hz ac circuit is 5 A, the value of the the Question current 1/300 seconds after its value becomes zero is a. 52 A b. 53/2 A c. 5/6 A d. 5/2 A Contention Alternating current NCERT Exemplary of Question 7.1 page of the 40 (In the question paper none of the option contains under-
Petitioner root.
Explanation In the rms (root mean square) current in a 50 Hz ac circuit is by the 5 A, the value of the current 1/300 seconds after its value University becomes zero is By the following calculation:-
The correct answer is 5/6 A i.e. option (c). The petitioner contends that all the options i.e. (a), (b),(c) and (d) should have root " ".
Since, the options (a), (b) and (d) by calculation are as such wrong, so it is beyond comprehension. So, that is why the petitioner is claiming that there should be under root over some digits. Probably the contender/petitioner is confused with some other situation.
To explain further, following clarification is given as under:-
A. 2 ½ x 2 VINOD KUMAR CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 54 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh B. 1.414 x 2 On solving the above option (A), the answer will 1.414 x 2, which is option (B). On solving both, the answer will be same i.e. 2.828. So, there is no difference between (A) and (B). But option is written in under- root form, whereas (B) is written in simple. So, both have same sense.
Thus, there was no need of under root symbol.
23 Question No.50 in Set - A, 200 in Set - B, 150 in Set - C and 100 in Set-D (Hand written objections i.e. the objections raised on 19.6.2015 after seeing the Question Booklet) Contents of The line that draws power supply to your house from street the Question has a. zero average current. b. 220 V average voltage c. Voltage and current out of phase d. None of these. by 900 Contention Alternating current - NCERT exemplar Page 43 of _____ - of the (1) In third option instead of 900 it is 900 (2) correct answer Petitioner as per book is (A & D) whereas Answer Key given B. Explanation The line that draws power supply to your houses from street of the has :-
University There are four options i.e. (a) zero average current (b) 220 V average voltage (c) Voltage and current out of phase by right angle (d) None of the above.
The petitioner contends that option (a) i.e. Zero average current and option (d) i.e. none of the above are correct.
It is a common observation that the power supply which comes to our houses is 220 V, which is correct option (b).
As per the NCERT Book, the options (a) and (d) are correct (as alleged by the petitioners). But it is beyond comprehension as to how option (a) Zero Average Current is correct as well as option (d). Neither of them are correct.
24 Question No.53 in Set - A, 3 in Set - B, 153 in Set - C, 103 in Set - D (Objection No.8 in the petition, Objection No.(vi) in the Second Petition and also in the hand written objections i.e. the objections raised on 19.6.2015 after seeing the Question Booklet) Contents of At 2000 C Hydrogen molecule have velocity 105cm/s. The de Question Broglie wavelength in this case is approximately:-
VINOD KUMARCWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 55 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh The options of this question are:- a. 2 Ao b. 1000 Ao c. 100 Ao d. 10 Ao Contention As per the question, the value of velocity given was 105 cm of the per second. With this value, no answer as given by Petitioner respondent can be derived. The value as determined by
respondent could be had 105 cm per second been mentioned instead of 105 cm per second.
Explanation The question states that at 2000 C Hydrogen molecule have by the velocity 105cm/s. The de Broglie wavelength in this case is University approximately:-
The options of this question are:-
a. 2 Ao b. 1000 Ao c. 100 Ao d. 10 Ao As per the NCERT Book at page No.46 it is very rightly mentioned that this question pertains to Bohr's theory, the formula is :- λ= h k mv Where h is Planck's constant, m is the mass of particle and v is velocity. The Paper Setter has asked to find out the wavelength at 200o C Hydrogen Molecule whose mass is 2gms). If the weight is 2gms and have velocity of 1.05 m/sec., the wavelength comes out to be approximately 1.89 which is approximately 2, which is option a. (2 Ao). On further elaboration, it may be mentioned that when the mass is in Kilograms, then the wavelength comes out to be 1899 approximately. In this question if one uses mass of Hydrogen in the unit of Kilograms, then the wavelength would be 1899 approximately. The Paper setter has asked 4 options i.e. 2 Ao, 1000 Ao, 100 Ao and 10 Ao. With these units, the wavelength is no way near to the four options asked by the Paper Setter.
So, from this, it is evident that the units used by him to answer the correct option is 2 gms. It is a prerogative of the Paper Setter that he asks the question in which form and the candidate has to answer among those four options, which are set by the Paper Setter.
25 Question No.57 in Set-A, 7 in Set -B, 157 in Set - C and 107 in Set - D (Hand written objections i.e. the objections raised on 19.6.2015 after seeing the Question Booklet) VINOD KUMAR CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 56 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh Contents of Which of the following is not isoelectronic :-
the Question a. Na+ b. Mg2+
c. O2- d. Cl-
Contention Option (c) and (d) written as O2- & Cl instead of O2- and Cl-
of the
Petitioner
Explanation There are four options and the correct option is (d), which is by the Cl-. While evaluating this answer, none of the three other University options i.e. (a) Na+ (b) Mg2+ (c) O2- are anyway near to the correct answer, as all of them as 10 electrons, whereas the correct answer Cl- has 18 electrons. The observations made by the petitioner is that the options (c) and (d) are written as O2- and Cl, whereas it should have been written as O2- and Cl-. It is pertinent to note that in the question, it is clearly mentioned Cl-. The petitioner wanted O2- to be written as O2- . The O2- is also wrongly written by the petitioner as it reflects the molecular state of the Oxygen, whereas the Question Paper refers to the atomic state of the Oxygen.
26 Question No.61 - Set A, 11 in Set -B, 161 in Set - C and 111 in Set - D (Hand written objections i.e. the objections raised on 19.6.2015 after seeing the Question Booklet) Contents of The bond order of O2- is :-
the Question a. 0.5 b. 1.5 c. 3.5 d. 2.5 Contention Bond order of O2- instead of O2-
of the
petitioner
Explanation By calculating the bond order, we find the stability of
by the molecules. Bond order is defined as half of the difference
University between the number of electrons in the bonding and
antibonding oribtals. i.e. Bond order is equal to ½ (Nb - Na). The molecule is stable if Nb > Na i.e. if the bond order is positive. The molecule is unstable if Nb < Na or Nb = Na i.e. if the bond order is negative or Zero. We are dealing with O2 molecule and its ions i.e. O2+ , O2- and O22- . Bond order of O2 molecule is 2 O2+ it is 2.5 O2- (Superoxide ion) = 1.5 O22- ion (peroxide) = 1 Hence out of the four possibilities O2, O2+, O2-, O22- O2- can be taken as only O2- among the aforesaid visible four possibilities and the bond order is 1.5 i.e. option (b).VINOD KUMAR
CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 57 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh Out of the options given, there cannot be the order of 0.5 i.e. option(a), or 3.5 i.e. option (c). The option (d) which is 2.5 is depicted as bond order of O2+ whereas the question asked is bond order of O2-.
27 Question No.70 in Set - A , 20 in Set - B , 170 in Set - C , 120 in Set - D (Objection No.6 in the First Petition - Para No.17) Contents of For electron affinity of halogens, which of the following Question correct?
a.) Br > F b.) F > Cl c.) Br > Cl d.)F > L Explanation The question has been cancelled due to printing error. Instead by the of F > I, it has been wrongly printed as F > L. Therefore, University award of same weightage to all the students has already been given/recommended.
28 Question No.71 in Set - A ,21 in Set - B ,171 in Set - C ,121 in Set - D (Objection No.12 in the First Petition and in the hand written objections i.e. the objections raised on 19.6.2015 after seeing the Question Booklet) Contents of Argon was discovered by Question
a) Rayleigh b) Ramsay c) Lockyr d) None of the above Contention Argon discovered by both Rayleigh and Ramsay.
of the
Petitioner
Explanation Rayleigh 1892 was pioneer to discover Argon. However,
by the Ramsay 1894 further worked on this and gave it the name.
University Therefore, the discovery of Argon, goes to the credit of
Rayleigh. Lord Rayleigh (1892) observed that atmospheric nitrogen obtained from air by the removal of Oxygen, CO2 and Moisture had a density (about 0.5%) higher than nitrogen prepared by heating ammonium nitrite. This led to the suspicion that some inert gas heavier than nitrogen was present in the Air and this was found to be argon.
NH4NO2 N2 + 2H2O In 1894, Ramsay took a purified sample of air (after removing moisture and carbon dioxide) and repeatedly passed it over red hot copper to remove all oxygen (as CuO and then over red hot magnesium 2Cu + O2 2CuO 3 Mg + N2 Mg3N2 To remove all nitrogen (as Mg3N2). The residual gas which VINOD KUMAR CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 58 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh was nearly 1% of the volume of air taken was found to be completely unreactive. This inert gas was found to be much denser than nitrogen and gave a spectrum quite different from that of nitrogen. So, the correct option is (a) i.e. Rayleigh.
29 Question No.84 in Set - A, 34 in Set - B ,184 in Set - C ,134 in Set - D (Objection No.7 in the First Petition, Objection No.(ii) in the Second Petition and also in the hand written objections i.e. the objections raised on 19.6.2015 after seeing the Question Booklet) Contents of Formaldehyde is treated with KOH (Caustic Potash) gives Question methanol and potassium. The reaction is known as
a) Perkin's reaction b) Claisen's reaction
c) Cannizarro's reaction d) Knoevenagel's reaction Contention Cannizzaro reaction: Aldehydes which do not have any of the hydrogen atom, undergo self oxidation and reduction Petitioner (disproportionate) reaction on treatment with concentrated alkali. In this reaction, one molecule of the aldehyde is reduced to alcohol while another is oxidized to carboxylic acid salt. (as per NCERT text book of 10+2) whereas the University says formaldehyde's reaction with KOH yields Methanol and Potassium which is not possible.
Formaldehyde + Formaldehyde + KOH = Methanol + Potassium Formate Explanation Here question is when formaldehyde is treated with KOH, it by the gives Methanol and any salt which is with the base. So, when University formaldehyde is treated with base, which could be KOH or NaOH, which gives rise to Methanol and the first element of the base. The examiner has asked the name of this reaction. There are 4 options :-
a. Perkin's reaction (which relates Benzaldehyde with Acetic Anhydride to give cinnamic acid ) b. Claisen's reaction (which is reaction between Benzaldeyhde and Acetaldehyde to give cinnamaldehyde) c. Cannizarro's reaction (which is reaction between formaldehyde and KOH, which gives Methanol and Potassium salt of the acid. ) d. Knoevenagel's reaction (This is a reaction between Aldehyde or ketone with active methylene compound which gives 'α', 'β-unsaturated acid.) It is evident that formaldehyde and KOH reaction is clearly visible as Cannizarro's Reaction.VINOD KUMAR
CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 59 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh The observation made by the petitioner, which is beyond the essence of question, is that in the question Potassium is written instead of Potassium Formate. It may be mentioned that if in place of KOH NaOH can also be made to react, then reaction would be Methyle Alcohol and Sodium Formate. So, the importance lies in the reaction of Formaldehyde with KOH producing Methanol and Sodium or Potassium, which could be that of formate. So, there is no ambiguity in the statement that when formaldehyde reacts with KOH, it is Cannizarro's reaction and in no way there is other correct option.
30 Question No.91 in Set - A, 41 in Set - B, 191 in Set-C and 141 in Set - D (Hand written objections i.e. the objections raised on 19.6.2015 after seeing the Question Booklet) Contents of Which of the following substance is Arrhenius Base, but not the Question Bronsted Base ?
(a) NaOH (b) CO3-2 (c) NH3 and (d) H2O Contention Option (b) CO3-2 does not make any sense.
of the
petitioner
Explanation The substance which is Arrhenius Base can give OH ion in
by the aqueous solution while Bronsted is the one, which can accept
University a proton. There are four options i.e. (a) NaOH (b) CO3-2 (c)
NH3 and (d) H2O. The observation made by the petitioners is that CO3-2 does not make any sense.
Petitioners have also stated that in whole of the Chemistry Section there was no use of superscripts and subscripts. Of course, CO3-2 as such should have been written as CO32- . However, since CO32- does not contain OH ion, so it is not a Arrhenius Base.
It is important to mention that merely by the look of the element, a person who knows a bit of Chemistry easily understands that H2O stands for Water and wherever, it is written like this, the brain perceives it as Water as such. It is also important to appreciate that numerous candidates who have scored significant marks in this question paper have understood H2O as Water and this has both properties of Arrhenius Base and Bronsted Base. Similarly, CO3-2 has been taken as CO32- (Carbonate ion). Further, NH3 and CO3-2 which is options (c) and (b) are only Bronsted Bases. Thus, for any student of Chemistry, NaOH is the only suitable option, which is Arrhenius Base because it can donate OH ion in aqueous solution and it is not a Bronsted Base. CO3- 2/CO32- as such has no relevance in this question, as this is VINOD KUMAR CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 60 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh not the correct answer.
31 Question No.130 in Set-A, 80 in Set -B, 30 in Set - C and 180 in Set - D (Hand written objections i.e. the objections raised on 19.6.2015 after seeing the Question Booklet) Contents of Ru Bis Co is?
the Question a. Ru BP carboxylase b. Ru BP oxi genase c. Ru BP carboxylase - oxygenase d. Ru BP carboxydismutase Contention Ru Bis Co. Answer given - A. of the Answer is C. petitioner Explanation Ru Bis Co is an abbreviation i.e. short name of an enzyme by the Ribulose 1.5 Buphosphate carboxylase that catalyses the University carboxylation reaction i.e. fixation of CO2 during C3 cycle of photosynthesis. However, Rubisco also acts as oxygenase under specific conditions i.e. low cone of CO2, high cone of O2 and high temperature and lead to C2 cycle i.e. Photorespiration in plants. Since the paper-setter has not mentioned any specific condition, therefore the answer given in the key i.e. (a) is correct.
32 Question No.136 in Set - A,86 in Set - B ,36 in Set - C ,186 in Set - D (Objection No.16 in the First Petition) Contents of Growth in plant is?
Question
a) Only determinate b) only indeterminate
c) Mostly determinate
d) both determinate and indeterminate.
Contention In para 17 (16) of CWP No. 11475 is "A question on biology of the regarding plant growth was doubtful." Petitioner Explanation The question is growth in plant is:-
by the
University a) Only determinate b) Only indeterminate
c) Mostly determinate
d) Both determinate and indeterminate
The growth in plant is generally indeterminate (unlimited/continuous growth). But there are plants/organs which show determinate growth (limited/definite growth).
VINOD KUMARCWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 61 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh This may be further elaborated as follows:-
Example No.1 :- Branching pattern in higher plants are of basically two types i.e. i. Racemose ii. Cymose In RACEMOSE type of branching, the stem shows unlimited growth because of the activity of its growing point throughout the life of plant. Therefore, this is indeterminate type of growth.
In CYMOSE type of branching, the stem shows limited growth because of the death/modification of growing point. Thus, it is indeterminate type of growth.
Example No.2:-
Annual plants show determinate growth, set flower and fruit and ultimately die.
Example No.3:-
Plant parts having definite shape (leaves, fruits, flowers) show determinate growth. Therefore, answer to the above- mentioned question is option (d), both determinate and indeterminate.
33 Question No.147 in Set - A,97 in Set - B ,47 in Set - C ,197 in Set - D (Objection No.14 in the First Petition (para No.17). Contents of If the length of a double helical DNA is 1.7 meters the Question number of base pairs present in DNA is?
a) 5x109 b) 1.7 x 109 c) 3.4 x 109 d) 1.7 x 105 Contention In Para 17(13) of CWP No. 11475, In this question numerical of the values of the parameters made the question totally absurd. 10 Petitioner to the power of 9 was simply written as 109, which is a totally different value.
In Para 17(14) of CWP No. 11475 another objection of this question was that the numerical values of parameters made the question totally absurd. 10 to the power of 5 was simply written as 105, which is a totally different value.
Explanation The question is if the length of double helical DNA is 1.7 by the meter, the number of base spares present in DNA is :-
University a. 5 x 109 VINOD KUMAR CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 62 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh b. 1.7 x 109 c. 3.4 x 109 d. 1.7 x 105 This question has already been cancelled due to printing error and an award of same weightage to all the students has been recommended.
Objection raised by the petitioner pertains to the above question with regard to the numeric value i.e. 105 instead of 105, which has already been cancelled.
34 Question No.164 in Set-A, 114 in Set -B, 64 in Set - C and 14 in Set - D (Hand written objections i.e. the objections raised on 19.6.2015 after seeing the Question Booklet) Contents of Ligaments are made up of ?
the Question a. White fibres and some b. White fibres only yellow fibres c. Yellow fibres only d. Yellow fibers and muscle fibers Contention Ligaments are made up of Yellow fibres only.
of the
Petitioner
Explanation The correct option is option (a) i.e. it has both fibres. The by the Ligament is fibrous connective tissue which connects the two University. bones. Ligaments have two types of fibres: White & Yellow.
White ligaments are rich in collagenous tissue which are sturdy and inelastic and yellow ligaments are rich in elastic fibres. White ligament fibres are crisscross and overlapped. Thus, both type of fibres i.e. yellow and white constitutes the composition of ligament.
35 Question No.169 in Set-A, 119 in Set -B, 69 in Set - C and 19 in Set - D (Hand written objections i.e. the objections raised on 19.6.2015 after seeing the Question Booklet) Contents of The study of fish culture is called ?
the Question
a. Ophiology b. Ichthyology
c. Herpetology d. Pisciculture
Contention
of the Study of fish culture is Ichthyology instead of Pisciculture
petitioner
Explanation The breeding, rearing, and transplantation of fish by artificial
by the means is called pisciculture. Thus, study of Fish culture is
University known as "Pisciculture", whereas Ichthyology is study of
VINOD KUMAR
CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 63 )
2015.09.01 14:21
I attest to the accuracy and
authenticity of this document
Chandigarh
Fish, not Fish Culture.
Ichthyology, option (b) is a study of Fish, which is a branch of Zoology (study of animals).
Option (a) i.e. Ophiology is branch of Zoology concerned with study of snakes.
Option (c) i.e. Herpetology is branch of Zoology concerned with study of amphibians (including frogs, toads, salamanders etc.) 36 Question No.177 in Set - A, 127 in Set-B, 77 in Set -C, and 27 in Set-D (Objection No.15 in the First Petition (para No.17) Contents of Which of the following statements is correct? the Question a. During inspiration b. Syanosis means external intercostals collapse of alveoli muscles and diaphragm contract c. Eupnea is slow d. Coryza is caused by breathing human coronavirus Contention Petitioner has mentioned that question demand correct or of the incorrect statement. There is NO such statement in the Petitioner question.
Explanation In this question, the candidate was to identify only correct by the statement. Out of the 4 options given, it is only the option - University 'A' (DURING INSPIRATION EXTERNAL INTERCONSTABLE MUSCLES AD DIAPHRAGM CONTRACTS) is only correct statement. Whereas all other statements pertain to slow breathing, syanasis, coryza are wrong.
37 Question No.180 in Set-A, 130 in Set-B, 80 in Set-C and 30 in Set-D (Objection No.15 in the First Petition (para No.17) Contents of Which one of the following statements is correct with regard the Question to the principal of the safe blood transfusion?
a. The donors RBC should not contain antibodies against the recipient's serum b. The recipient's serum should not contain antigens against the donor's anti bodies.
c. The recipient serum should not contain the anti bodies against the RBC of the donor d. The recipient RBC should not contain antibodies against the donor's antigen.
Contention
of the
Petitioner
Explanation The question reads that as to which statement is correct with by the regard to PRINCIPLE OF THE SAFE BLOOD VINOD KUMAR CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 64 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh University TRANSFUSION. The correct statement is only one i.e. option (c). There is no confusion that question has been asked to identify correct or incorrect statement.
38 Question No.186 in Set-A, 136 in Set -B, 86 in Set - C and 36 in Set-D (Hand written objections i.e. the objections raised on 19.6.2015 after seeing the Question Booklet) Contents of The lower Jaw in mammals is made up of ?
the question
a. Dentary b. Maxilla
c. Angular d. Mandible
Contention Lower Jaw is called Mandible and not Dentary
of the
petitioner
Explanation The correct option is option (a) i.e. Dentary. The vertebrate by the skull in general and the mammal skull in particular is a University complex amalgam of bones, not just one or two but about 34 bones, if they all are present, make up the skull and lower jaw. Most of these bones are now fused together though anyone who has looked carefully at a mammal skull will have noticed the crinkly lines where the once individual bones meet. Most of them come in pairs, one each side. The skull can be divided into 3 basic parts ; the Braincase (enclosing the brain) ; the Rostrum (the snout and upper jaw) ; the Lower Jaw.
Some of the main bones of the skull are:
Nasal bones - the roof of the nasal cavity.
Maxillary bones - the main bones of the upper jaw, including the Zygomatic Arch; the bones to which the strong jaw muscles are attached and which form the boundaries of the eyes. The Zygomatic Arches also contain the Jugal bones and the Squamosal bones.
Frontal bones - the top of the skull in most mammals. These are the bones that horns and antlers grow from. Parietal bones - these form the roof and back of the Braincase.
Occipital bones - the lower back of the Braincase (actually 3 bones fused together, basiocciptial, exoccipitals and supraoccipital) Dentary bones - the lower Jaw.
Lower Jaw in mammals is known as Mandible. Among human beings, it has other articulations like Coronoid process VINOD KUMAR CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 65 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh and Condyle etc. Whole of the Mandible is not covered with Teeth. It has also numerous muscles attached to it, which are used in mastication.
Question asked is "Lower Jaw in mammals is made up of", only Dentary which is totally occupied by the Teeth, whereas Mandible has teeth and other structures also.
Although human being is also a mammal, but Lower Jaw in human beings is different than Dentary and Dentary is part of Mandible among the human beings.
39 Question No.189 in Set-A, 139 in Set -B, 89 in Set - C and 39 in Set - D (Hand written objections i.e. the objections raised on 19.6.2015 after seeing the Question Booklet) Contents of Which of the following nerves is purely motor nerve ?
the Question
a. Vagus b. Facial
c. Abducent d. Trigeminal
Contention
of the Abducent spelling
Petitioner
Explanation The petitioner has objected to the spelling of "Abducent". It
by the may be clarified that Abducent nerve is also known as
University "Abducens" Nerve. It is sixth cranial nerve and is a motor
nerve, which controls the movements of lateral rectus muscle of the eye. The petitioner contended that Facial is correct answer i.e. option (b), which of course has motor component to the muscles of face, but its sensory component conveys the care sensation from the anterior 2/3rd of the tongue and the oral cavity, which means it is a mixed nerve.
The other two options (a) and (d) are typical mixed nerves.
40 Question No.30Contention Bulk matter. According to NCERT exemplar +1, Page 78 Q. of the 11.4 answer is (a) but given answer is (b). Petitioner Explanation The petitioner contended that this question pertains to "Bulk by the Matter". The correct word is "Bulk Modulus" and there is no University question pertaining to this in Question No.30. None of the questions in the Question Booklet pertain to Bulk Modulus.
(Dr.Navdeep Shekhar) (Dr.Kanwaljit Kaur) (Dr.Raman Mahajan) (Dr.Harjeet Singh)"
VINOD KUMARCWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 66 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh Thereafter, the petitioners also produced the report of their experts dated 06.07.2015, which is reproduced as under:-
Question No. 4 in Set-A, 154 in Set-B, 104 in Set-C, 54 in Set-D 1 Contents of An astronomical refractive telescope has an objective of focal length 20 m Question and an eyepiece of focal length 2 cm.
(a) The length of the telescope tube is 20.02 m
(b) The magnification is 1000
(c) The image formed is inverted
(d) An objective of a larger aperture will increase the brightness and reduce chromatic aberration of the image Explanation (a) Length of telescope L = f 0 + f e ....(1) by the (NCERT Page 341) Petitioner's Here f 0 is focal length of objective length and f e is focal length of Expert Eyepiece Here f 0 = 20 m (given in the question) ....(2) and f e = 2 cm = 0.02 m (given in the question) ....(3) Substituting the value of (2) and (3) in equation (1) L = 20 + 0.02 = 20.02 m f
(b) Magnification = 0 ....(4) fe (NCERT Page 341 - 9.46) Substituting the value of (2) and (3) in equation (4) 20 20 × 100 ∴ Magnification = = = 1000 0.02 2
(c) Final image is always inverted So, Answers are (a), (b) and (c) are correct.
Explanation But explanation given by University is totally vague. by University Question No. 6 of Set-A, 156 of Set-B, 106 of Set-C, 56 of Set-D 2 Contents of An particle is dropped from a height H. The de Broglie wavelength of the Question particle as a function of height is proportional to
(a) H 12
(b) H 0
(c) H
(d) None of the above Explanation h h
(d) As λ = = ....(1) by the P mV Petitioner's Here V = 2gH ....(2) Expert (∴ v − u = 2 as here u = 0, S = H (given in question) so 2 2 V = 2gH ) Substituting the value of (2) in equation (1) VINOD KUMAR CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 67 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh h ∴ λ= m 2gH 1 1 − λ∝ or H 2 H So, Answer (d) is correct.
Explanation Explanation of the university is correct but choice mention by them is by 1 1 − University wrong, because λ ∝ or H 2 . So this is not existing in options (a), H
(b) & (c) so as (d) option is None of the above, so correct answer is (d). Question No. 10 of Set-A, 160 of Set-B, 110 of Set-C, 60 of Set-D 5 Contents of In a non-transistor circuit, the collector current is 10 mA. If 95 percent of Question the electrons emitted reach the collector, which of the following statements are true?
(a) The emitter current will be 8 mA
(b) The emitter current will be 10.53 mA
(c) The base current will be 0.53 mA
(d) The base current will be 2 mA Explanation (b) As in case of npn transistor by the Ie = I c + I b ...(1) Petitioner's Here Ie is emitter current, Ic is collector current, I b is base current Expert I c = 10 mA (given in question) ....(2) 95 Ic = Ie (given in question) ....(3) 100 Substituting the value of (2) in equation (3) 10 mA × 100 ∴ = Ie 95 Ie = 10.53 mA ....(4)
(c) I b = I e − Ic (as from equation (1)) ....(5) Substituting the value of (2) and (4) in equation (5) I b = (10.53 − 10 ) mA I b = 0.53 mA = 0.53 × 103 µA So, Answers (b) and (c) are correct.
Explanation Explanation of university is correct. According to their explanation (b) and by (c) are correct because 0.53 mA and 0.53 × 103 µA both are the same thing. University Note More over in this question there is a printing mistake by the university. The word instead of non-transistor should be npn-transistor. If we use the word non-transistor than there is no sense of this question. Question No. 11 of Set-A, 161 of Set-B, 111 of Set-C, 61 of Set-D 6 Contents of In the depletion region of a diode Question (a) there are no mobile charges
(b) equal number of holes and electrons exist, making the region neutral VINOD KUMAR CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 68 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh
(c) recombination of holes and electrons has taken place
(d) immobile charged ions exist Explanation (a), (b) and (d) are facts by the Petitioner's Expert Explanation Explanation are correct. According to their explanation the answer will be by (a), (b) and (d).
University Question No. 12 of Set-A, 162 of Set-B, 112 of Set-C, 62 of Set-D 7 Contents of Three waves A, B and C of frequencies 1600 kHz, 5 MHz and 60 MHz, Question respectively are to be transmitted from one place to another. Which of the following is the most appropriate mode of communication
(a) A is transmitted via space wave while B and C are transmitted via sky wave
(b) A is transmitted via ground wave, B via sky wave and C via space wave
(c) B and C are transmitted via ground wave while A is transmitted via sky wave
(d) B is transmitted via ground wave while A and C are transmitted via space wave Explanation (b) For Ground Wave Propagation Range is 530 kHz to 1710 kHz by the (NCERT Page No. 519, 15.6.1) Petitioner's ∴ A → 1600 kHz (given in the question) will be transmitted through Expert ground wave propagation As it lies between 530 kHz to 1710 kHz For Sky Wave Propagation Range is 1710 kHz to 40 MHz (NCERT Page No. 520, 15.6.2) ∴ B → 5 MHz (given in the question) will be transmitted through sky wave propagation As it lies between 1710 kHz to 40 MHz For Space Wave Propagation Rage is 54 MHz to 42 GHz (NCERT Page No. 521, 15.6.3) ∴ C → 60 MHz (given in the question) will be transmitted through space wave propagation As it lies between 54 MHz to 42 GHz So, Answer (b) is correct.
Explanation Total vague explanation.
by University Question No. 14 of Set-A, 164 of Set-B, 114 of Set-C, 64 of Set-D 8 Contents of A basic communication system consists of Question (A) transmitter (B) information source (C) user of information VINOD KUMAR CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 69 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh (D) channel (E) receiver Choose the correct sequence in which these are arranged in a basic communication system
(a) ABCDE
(b) BADEC
(c) BDACE
(d) BEADC Explanation by the Petitioner's Expert (NCERT Diagram Page No. 515) (B) for information source (A) transmitter (D) channel (E) receiver (C) destination So, Answer (b) is correct Explanation University experts made the wrong flow chart. Explanation is totally by vague University Question No. 15 of Set-A, 165 of Set-B, 115 of Set-C, 65 of Set-D 9 Contents of An audio signal of 15 kHz frequency cannot be transmitted over long Question distances without modulation because
(a) the size of the required antenna would be at least 5 km which is not convenient
(b) the audio signal cannot be transmitted through sky waves
(c) the size of the required antenna would be at least 20 km, which is not convenient
(d) effective power transmitted would be very low, if the size of the antenna is less than 5 km.
Explanation λ
by the (a) Size of antenna is = 4 ....(1)
Petitioner's
C
As λ = (C is the velocity of light = 3 × 10 m/s)
8
Expert
f
Substituting in equation (1)
C
Size of antenna is = ....(2)
f ×4
The value of f = 15 kHz given in the question Substituting in equation (2) 3 × 108 Size of antenna is = = 5000 m = 5 km 15 × 103 × 4 VINOD KUMAR CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 70 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh
(b) As their frequency is very low, they will be absorbed by atmosphere So they cannot transmitted by sky wave.
(d) If size of antenna is less than 5 km effective power will be low.
1Because power radiated is ∝ so in this case power radiated will be λ2 very small So, Answers (a), (b) and (d) are correct.
Explanation Explanation given by university correct. According to their explanation the by options (a), (b) and (d) are absolutely correct answer. University Question No. 16 of Set-A, 166 of Set-B, 116 of Set-C, 66 of Set-D 10 Contents of Audio sine waves of 3 kHz frequency are used to amplitude modulate a Question carrier signal of 1.5 MHz. Which of the following statements are true?
(a) The side band frequencies are 1506 kHz and 1494 kHz
(b) The bandwidth required for amplitude modulation is 6 kHz
(c) The bandwidth required for amplitude modulation is 3 MHz
(d) The side band frequencies are 1503 kHz and 1497 kHz Explanation (d) by the Petitioner's Expert (NCERT Diagram Page No. 525) ωm = 3 kHz ....(1) ( ωm frequency of audio signal given in the question) ωc = 15 MHz = 1500 kHz ....(2) ( ωc frequency of modulating carrier signal given in the question) As side bands = ωm + ωc and ωc − ωm ....(3) Substituting the value of (1) and (2) in equation (3) ∴ = (1500 + 3) kHz and (1500 − 3) kHz = 1503 kHz and 1497 kHz
(b) As band width = ( ωm + ωc ) − ( ωc − ωm ) = 2 ωm ....(4) Substituting the value of (1) and (2) in equation (4) = 2 × 3 = 6 kHz So, Answers (b) and (d) are correct.
Explanation Total vague explanation.
by University Question No. 17 of Set-A, 167 of Set-B, 117 of Set-C, 67 of Set-D 11 Contents of In amplitude modulation, the modulation index m, is kept less than or equal VINOD KUMAR CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 71 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh Question to 1 because
(a) m > 1, will result in interference between carrier frequency and message frequency, resulting into distortion.
(b) m > 1 will result in overlapping of both side bands resulting into loss of information.
(c) m > 1 will result in change in phase between carrier signal and message signal.
(d) m > 1 indicates amplitude of message signal greater than amplitude of carrier signal resulting into distortion. Explanation (b) and (d) are facts and correct explanation is given by university. So by the correct answers are (b) and (d) Petitioner's Expert Explanation by University Question No. 21 & 26 of Set-A, 171 of Set-B, 121 of Set-C, 71 of Set-D 12 Contents of During inelastic collision between two bodies, which of the following Question quantities always remain conserve?
(a) Total kinetic energy
(b) Total mechanical energy
(c) Total linear momentum
(d) Speed of each body Explanation (c) In all types of collision total linear momentum is conserved because no by the external force is acting.
Petitioner's So, Answer (c) is correct.
Expert Explanation Recommended by the university to cancel this question. by University Question No. 19 & 22 of Set-A, 172 of Set-B, 122 of Set-C, 72 of Set-D 13 Contents of A motorboat covers a given distance in 6 hours moving downstream on a Question river. It covers the same distance in 10 hours moving upstream. The time it takes to cover the same distance in still water is .........
(a) 6.5 hours
(b) 8 hours
(c) 9 hours
(d) 7.5 hours Explanation Answer (d) by the Petitioner's Expert Explanation by University Question No. 27 of Set-A, 177 of Set-B, 127 of Set-C, 77 of Set-D 14 Contents of Which of the following pairs of physical quantities does not have same Question dimensional formula?
VINOD KUMARCWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 72 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh (a) Work and torque
(b) Angular momentum and Planck's constant
(c) Tension and surface tension
(d) Impulse and linear momentum Explanation (a) The formula for Work and torque = FS and FS ....(1) by the Here F is the force and S is the distance Dimension of force = [ MLT ] Petitioner's −2 ....(2) Expert Dimension of distance = [ M LT ] 0 0 ....(3) Substituting the value of (2) and (3) in equation (1), we get [ ML2T −2 ] E
(b) The formula for Angular momentum and Planck's constant = PS & f ....(1) Here P is the linear momentum and S is the distance E is the energy and F is the frequency Dimension of linear momentum = [ MLT ] −1 ....(2) Dimension of distance = [ M LT ] 0 0 ....(3) Dimension of energy = [ ML T ] 2 −2 ....(4) Dimension of frequency = [ M L T ] 0 0 −1 ....(5) Substituting the values of (2), (3), (4) & (5) in (1), we shall get [ ML2T −1 ] F
(c) The formula for Tension and Surface tension = T and ....(1) S Here T is the tension (force), F is the force and S is the distance Dimension of force = [ MLT ] −2 ....(2) Dimension of distance = [ M LT ] 0 0 ....(3) Substituting the value of (2) and (3) in equation (1), we get [ MLT −2 ] and [ ML T 0 −2 ] So, these are having different dimension
(d) Impulse = change in momentum therefore impulse and linear momentum are also having the same dimension. So, Answer (c) is correct.
Explanation Explanation of choice (a) is correct. Explanation of choice (c) is incorrect by because tension is force not force per unit length. Explanation of choice University (d) is correct. Explanation of choice (b) is also incorrect because Planck's constant is energy X time not energy / time. ( E = hν ) Question No. 28 of Set-A, 178 of Set-B, 128 of Set-C, 78 of Set-D 15 Contents of A spring with one end attached to a mass and the other to a rigid support is Question stretched and released
(a) Magnitude of acceleration, when just released is maximum
(b) Magnitude of acceleration, when at equilibrium position, is VINOD KUMAR CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 73 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh maximum
(c) Speed is maximum when mass is at equilibrium position
(d) Magnitude of displacement is always maximum whenever speed is minimum Explanation (a) As acceleration A = −ω2 y by the So when particle is just stretched just test that will be its extreme Petitioner's position Expert ∴ as extreme position y = rman ∴ A is minimum.
(c) As at mean position y = 0 ∴ v = ω r 2 − y 2 = rω (minimum) So, Answers (a) and (c) are correct.
Explanation Totally vague explanation.
by University Question No. 29 of Set-A, 179 of Set-B, 129 of Set-C, 79 of Set-D 16 Contents of Three vectors, A, B and C add up to zero. Find which is false. Question (a) (A × B) × C is not zero unless, B, C are parallel
(b) (A × B) . C is not zero unless, B, C are parallel
(c) If A, B, C define a plane, (A × B) × C is in that plane
(d) (A × B) . C = |A| |B| |C| C2 = A2 + B2 Explanation Printing error in all the options. by the Petitioner's Expert Explanation by University Question No. 32 of Set-A, 182 of Set-B, 132 of Set-C, 82 of Set-D 17 Contents of A bullet of mass m fired at 300 to the horizontal leaves the barrel of the Question gun with a velocity v. The bullet hits a soft target at a height h above the ground while it is moving downward and emerges out with half the kinetic energy it had before hitting the target.
Which of the following statements are correct in respect to bullet after it emerges out of the target?
(a) The velocity of the bullet will be reduced to half its initial value
(b) The velocity of the bullet will be more than half of its earlier velocity
(c) The bullet will continue to move along the same parabolic path
(d) The bullet will move in a different parabolic path Explanation (c) It is the printing error in question. Instead of 300 it should be 30o . by the With this 300 in the question paper which make no sense.
Petitioner's
VINOD KUMAR
CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 74 )
2015.09.01 14:21
I attest to the accuracy and
authenticity of this document
Chandigarh
Expert
Explanation Total vague explanation.
by
University
Question No. 38 of Set-A, 188 of Set-B, 138 of Set-C, 88 of Set-D 18 Contents of An ideal gas undergoes isothermal process from some initial state i to final Question state f. Choose the correct alternatives
(a) dU = 0
(b) dQ = 0
(c) dQ = dU
(d) dQ = dW Explanation (a) In Isothermal Process Temperature is constant. As internal energy for by the ideal gas only depends upon temperature. So for isothermal process Petitioner's (given in the question) change in internal energy will be zero.
Expert ∴ ....( 1)
(d) From first law of thermodynamics
....(2)
Substituting the value of (1) in equation (2) ∴ So, Answer (a) and (d) are correct.
Explanation Total vague explanation.
by University Question No. 40 of Set-A, 190 of Set-B, 140 of Set-C, 90 of Set-D 19 Contents of A particle is acted simultaneously by mutually perpendicular simple Question harmonic motions x = a cost t and y = a sin t. The trajectory of motion of the particle will be ..........
(a) an ellipse
(b) A parabola
(c) A circle
(d) A straight line
Explanation x = a cos t ...(1)
by the y = a sin t ...(2)
Petitioner's Squaring and adding equation (1) and (2) Expert x 2 + y 2 = a 2 cos 2 t + a 2 sin 2 t = a 2 ( cos 2 t + sin 2 t ) x 2 + y 2 = a 2 {because cos2 t + sin 2 t = 1 } It is an equation of circle. So correct answer is (c) Explanation No explanation is given by university.
by
University
VINOD KUMAR
CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 75 )
2015.09.01 14:21
I attest to the accuracy and
authenticity of this document
Chandigarh
Question No. 42 of Set-A, 192 of Set-B, 142 of Set-C, 92 of Set-D 20 Contents of A train, standing in a station yard, blows a whistle of frequency 400 Hz in Question still air. The wind starts blowing in the direction from the yard to the station with a speed of 10 m/s. Given that the speed of sound in still air is 340 m/s
(a) the frequency of sound as heard by an observer standing on the platform is 400 Hz
(b) the speed of sound for the observer standing on the platform is 350 m/s
(c) the frequency of sound as heard by the observer standing on the platform will increase
(d) the frequency of sound as heard by the observer standing on the platform will decrease Explanation (a) As both source of sound and listener are at rest. Therefore according to by the doppler's effects of sound there will be no change in frequency . So Petitioner's frequency will remain 400 Hz (given in the question). Expert (b) Velocity of sound in medium = V + Vm ....(1) Here V is the velocity of sound in still air Vm is the velocity of medium i.e., wind.
V = 340 ms-1 ....(2)
-1
Vm = 10 ms ....(3)
Substituting the value (2) and (3) in equation (1) = 350 ms-1 So, Answer (a) and (b) are correct.
Explanation Total vague explanation.
by University Question No. 47 of Set-A, 197 of Set-B, 147 of Set-C, 97 of Set-D 22 Contents of If the rums current in a 50 Hz ac circuit is 5A, the value of the current Question 1/300 seconds after its value becomes zero is
(a) 52 A
(b) 53/2 A
(c) 5/6 A
(d) 5/2 A Explanation As I = I 0 sin ωt ....(1) by the Here I is the AC at any time t. I0 is peak value of AC Petitioner's Expert But I0 = 2I rms I rms is root means square value of AC Substituting in equation (1) I = 2I rms sin ωt = I = 2I rms sin 2πft ....(2) f = 50 hz (given in the question) ....(3) I rms = 5 (given in the question) ....(4) 1 t= s (given in the question) ....(5) 300 Substituting the value (3), (4) & (5) in equation (2) VINOD KUMAR CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 76 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh 1 π π 3 I = 5 2 sin 2π × 50 × = 5 2 sin , sin = 300 3 3 2 3 3 =5 2× =5 A 2 2 So, none of the choice is correct Explanation Explanation of university is correct and according to their explanation also by there is no correct option. Actually the options given are incorrect. Actual University 3 5 5 options should be (a) 5 2 A (b) 5 A (c) A (d) A 2 6 2 Question No. 50 of Set-A, 200 of Set-B, 150 of Set-C, 100 of Set-D 23 Contents of The line that draws power supply to your house from street has Question (a) zero average current
(b) 220 V average
(c) voltage and current out of phase by 900
(d) None of these Explanation (a) Average value of AC current is zero over complete cycle by the (b) 220 V is R.M.S. value of AC Petitioner's So, Answer (a) is correct.
Expert Explanation Explanation of university is incorrect because 220 V is a rms value it is by not a average value.
University Question No. 53 in Set-A, 3 in Set-B, 153 in Set-C, 103 in Set-D 24 Contents of At 200oC Hydrogen molecule have velocity 105 cm/s. The de Broglie Question wavelength in this case is approximately :
(a) 2 Ao
(b) 1000 Ao
(c) 100 Ao
(d) 10 Ao Explanation There is also printing mistake in the question. This is not 105 it should be by the 105 moreover options are also wrong because Ao is nothing. It should be Å.
Petitioner's None of the option is correct. Expert Explanation Totally vague explanation. It is the mass of 1 mole i.e., 6.023 × 1023 by molecule i.e., 2 gm. In the questions it is for 1 molecule. None of the University option is correct.
Question No. 57 in Set-A, 7 in Set-B, 157 in Set-C, 107 in Set-D 25 Contents of Which of the following is not isoelectronic Question (a) Na+ (b) Mg2+
(c) O2- (d) Cl-
Explanation There is also printing error in the question. It should be O − , Cl− , Mg 2+ , 2 by the Na + . If O2- is treated as O −2 it is superoxide ion and if it is O−2 then it is Petitioner's Expert oxide. This is an error. Both (c) and (d) will be answer.
VINOD KUMARCWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 77 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh Explanation Vague explanation. by University
Question No. 61 in Set-A, 11 in Set-B, 161 in Set-C, 111 in Set-D 26 Contents of The bond order of O2- is Question (a) 0.5 (b) 1.5 (c) 3.5 (d) 2.5 Explanation The same error as the above question. It should be O −2 . by the Petitioner's Expert Explanation Vague explanation.
by University Question No. 71 in Set-A, 21 in Set-B, 171 in Set-C, 121 in Set-D 28 Contents of Argon was discovered by Question (a) Rayleigh (b) Ramsay (c) Lockyr (d) None of the above Explanation Rayleigh suspect but not discovered. by the Petitioner's Expert Explanation Accepted by the university.
by University Question No. 84 in Set-A, 34 in Set-B, 184 in Set-C, 134 in Set-D 29 Contents of Formaldehyde is treated with KOH (Caustic Potash) gives methanol and Question potassium. The reaction is known as
(a) Perkin's reaction (b) Claisen's reaction
(c) Cannizarro's reaction (d) Knoevenagel's reaction Explanation K and its salts are entirely different. How can you treat both same. This by the question is totally wrong it can't be Cannizzaro. Petitioner's Expert Explanation Vague explanation.
by University Question No. 91 in Set-A, 41 in Set-B, 191 in Set-C, 141 in Set-D 30 Contents of Which of the following substance is Arrhenius Base, but not Bronsted Question Base?
(a) NaOH (b) CO3-2 (c) NH3 and (d) H2O Explanation There is a printing error. This is not NH3 but it should be NH3 , CO3-2 by the should be CO 3−2 , H2O should be H 2O .
Petitioner's NaOH can be treated both as Arrhenius and Bronsted as Expert OH − + H + → H 2 O . OH− can accept H + and any proton acceptor will be a Bronsted Base. So none of answer is correct.
Explanation
by University
VINOD KUMAR
CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 78 )
2015.09.01 14:21
I attest to the accuracy and
authenticity of this document
Chandigarh
Question No. 136 in Set-A, 86 in Set-B, 36 in Set-C, 186 in Set-D 32 Contents of Growth in plant is?
Question (a) Only determinate (b) Only indeterminate
(c) Mostly determinate (d) Both determinate and indeterminate Explanation by the Petitioner's Expert Explanation by University Question No. 147 in Set-A, 97 in Set-B, 47 in Set-C, 197 in Set-D 33 Contents of If the length of a double helical DNA is 1.7 meters the number of base Question pairs present in DNA is ?
(a) 5 × 109 (b) 1.7 × 109 (c) 3.4 × 109 (d) 1.7 × 105 Explanation All options are incorrect due to printing error. by the Petitioner's Expert Explanation Cancelled by University.
by University Question No. 164 in Set-A, 114 in Set-B, 64 in Set-C, 14 in Set-D 34 Contents of Ligaments are made up of?
Question (a) White fibres and some yellow fibers (b) White fibres only
(c) Yellow fibres only (d) Yellow fibers and n fibers Explanation Dominating yellow fibers in the ligament, which make elastic. So correct by the answer is (d).
Petitioner's Expert Explanation by University Question No. 169 in Set-A, 119 in Set-B, 69 in Set-C, 19 in Set-D 35 Contents of The study of fish culture is called?
Question (a) Ophilogy (b) Ichthyology
(c) Herpetology (d) Pisciculture
Explanation Culturing of fish in pond pisciculture whereas study of fish in Ichthyology.
by the So correct answer is (b).
Petitioner's
Expert
Explanation Ichthyology is the study of fish. by University Question No. 177 in Set-A, 127 in Set-B, 77 in Set-C, 27 in Set-D 36 Contents of Which of the following statements is correct?
Question (a) during inspiration external intercostals muscles and diaphragm
contract
(b) Syanosis means collapse of alveoli
VINOD KUMAR
CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 79 )
2015.09.01 14:21
I attest to the accuracy and
authenticity of this document
Chandigarh
(c) Eupnea is slow breathing
(d) Coryza is caused by human coronavirus Explanation Spelling of option (b) is incorrect. This is not Syanosis it should be by the Cynosis.
Petitioner's Expert Explanation by University Question No. 30 in Set-A 40 Contents of No content was given.
Question Explanation by the Petitioner's Expert Explanation by University Question No. 33 of Set-A 41 Contents of Satellites orbiting the earth have finite life and sometimes debris of Question satellites fall to the earth. This is because
(a) the solar cells and batteries in satellites run out
(b) the laws of gravitation predict a trajectory spiralling inwards
(c) of viscous forces causing the speed of satellite and hence height to gradually decrease
(d) of collisions with other satellites Explanation (c) It is because when in the orbit of the satellite viscous forces are by the existing, they decreases the speed of the satellite. With decrease of the Petitioner's speed, height of satellite also decreases. Expert Explanation No comment is given by university. by University Question No. 34 of Set-A 42 Contents of The maximum load a wire can withstand without breaking, when its length Question is reduced to half of its original length, will
(a) be double
(b) be half
(c) be four times
(d) remain same Explanation Maximum load
(d) Breaking stress = ....(1) by the Area Petitioner's From equation (1) Expert As maximum load = breaking stress × area It is only depending upon the area and not length so it will remain same with increase of length.
So, Answer (d) is correct.
Explanation No comment is given by university.
by University
VINOD KUMAR
CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 80 )
2015.09.01 14:21
I attest to the accuracy and
authenticity of this document
Chandigarh
Question No. 35 of Set-A
43 Contents of An ideal fluid flows through a pipe of circular cross section made of two
Question sections with diameters 2.5 cm and 3.75 cm. The ratio of the velocities in
the two pipes is
(a) 9 : 4
(b) 3 : 2
(c) 3: 2
(d) 2: 3
Explanation According to equation of continuity
by the a1v1 = a 2 v 2 ....(1)
Petitioner's Therefore from equation (1)
Expert
v1 a 2 πd 22 d 22
∴ = = = ....(2)
v 2 a1 πd12 d12
πd12 πd 22
a1 = , a2 =
4 4
As d1 = diameter = 2.5 cm (given the question) d 2 = diameter = 3.75 cm (given the question) Substituting the value of d1 and d 2 in equation (2) 2 2 2 3.75 15 3 9 = = = = 2.5 10 2 4 So, Answer (a) is correct.
Explanation No comment is given by university. by University Shiv Charan Gupta Physics (Item No. 1 to 23, 40 to 43) Dr. Sangeeta Khanna Chemistry (Item No. 24 to 31) Harpal Singh Biology (Item No. 32 to 39) As against this, the University produced on record another report of their experts dated 14/15.07.2015, in continuation of the proceedings dated 02.07.2015, 18.06.2015 & 08.06.2015 contradicting the report of the petitioners' experts dated 06.07.2015. The said report is reproduced as under:-
VINOD KUMARCWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 81 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh BABA FARID UNIVERSITY OF HEALTH SCIENCES, FARIDKOT In CWPs No.11475 & 12409 of 2015 PROCEEDINGS OF THE MEETING OF THE SUBJECT EXPERTS HELD ON 14/15.7.2015 TO CONSIDER THE OBJECTIONS DATED 6.7.2015 OF THE PETITIONERS' EXPERTS (In continuation of the proceedings dated 2.7.2015, 18.6.2015 & 8.6.2015) Question No.4 in Set - A,154 in Set - B ,104 in Set - C ,54 in Set - D (This objection is not in the First Petition, but it is quoted as Objection No.9 in the Second Petition as well as the objections submitted on 19.6.2015 after seeing the Question Booklet) 1 Contents of An astronomical refractive telescope has an objective focal Question length of 20 m and eyepiece of focal length 2 cm
a) The length of the telescope tube is 20.02 m
b) The magnification is 1000.
c) The image formed is inverted.
d) An objective of a larger aperture will increase the brightness and reduce chromatic aberration of the image. Contention That this question is from the Physics Exemplar Problem and its of the answer is options (a), (b) and (c).
Petitioner Explanation It may be noted that the Paper-Setter has changed the statement by the of the question, where objective Focal Length has been changed University from 20 cm to 20 m. Thus, there is a glaring difference in the statement which is in the N.C.E.R.T. book and that which is in the PMET Question Paper. This change in the objective Focal Length shall change the answer. Thus, in the PMET, the correct option is option (d) instead of petitioners' pleas i.e. options (a),
(b) and (c). The Paper Setter has changed the statement, because the most important instructions to the Paper Setter as well as the candidates are that "There is only one correct option" and in case, the candidate does not understand the question, he is to fill oval "e". Thus, it is clarified that in order to have one correct option i.e. "d", the Paper Setter has changed the statement from the NCERT exemplar, which is prerogative of the Paper Setter.
Further It may be added that, earlier, the petitioners' objection was reply by based on focal length of 20 cm instead of 20 m. University to the It is reiterated that option (d) is correct because the desirable petitioners' aim in the astronomical telescope is to make it of large objective experts. diameter as the main advantage with an astronomical telescope is its power of gathering light, which power is proportional to square of diameter. The diameter helps to determine the light- gathering capacity of the objective lens and thus the brightness of the image.
VINOD KUMARCWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 82 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh As we use lens in an astronomical telescope, so there are no chromatic aberrations because there is no use of mirrors in astronomical telescope.
2 Question No.6 of set A, 156 of set B, 106 of set C, 56 of set D (Objection No.3 of the First Petition (para No.17), Objection No.1 in the Second Petition and also the Objection raised on 19.6.2015 after seeing the Question Booklet.) Contents of "A particle is dropped from height H. The de Broglie wavelength Question of the particle as a function of a height is proportional to":-
(a) H (b) H½ (c) HO (d) None of the above
Contention The petitioner has quoted the following options as per NCERT
of the Book :-
Petitioner (a) H (b) H ½ (c) HO (d) H-½
Explanation The correct option is option (a). Whereas, the options quoted as by the per NCERT Book by the petitioners are wrong except option (a). University The paper-setter and Key Expert believes that the correct option is option (a) i.e. "H" according to the following calculation:-
Further The calculations given above by the University are more detailed reply by than those given by the petitioners' experts. Firstly, we have put University to the value of constant (C). Secondly, we have multiplied as well the as divided the wavelength in numerator and denominator by root petitioners' H. The petitioners' experts have not done so. It is reiterated experts. that the correct answer is option (a) i.e. H.
3 Question No.8 in Set-A, 158 in Set-B, 108 in Set-C and 58 in Set - D (Hand Written objections raised on 19.6.2015 after seeing the Question Booklet).
Contents of Suppose we consider a large number of containers each the Question containing initially 10000 atoms of a radioactive material with a VINOD KUMAR CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 83 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh half life of 1 year. After 1 year, a. All the containers will have 5000 atoms of the material.
b. All the containers will contain the same number of atoms of the material but that number will only be approximately 5000.
c. The containers will in general have different numbers of the atoms of the material but their average will be close to 5000.
d. None of the containers can have more than 5000 atoms.
Contention Radioactivity. As per NCERT Exemplar page 81, Q. No.13.1,
of the answer is (c). Whereas the answer given by the University is
Petitioner option (a).
Explanation The petitioners have alleged the option (c) as correct.
by the
University But, it is elaborated here that from the definition of half life
period of radioactive material, half number of radioactive material atoms will be left behind after half life period (here half life period is 1 year). So, the option (a) is correct one i.e. "All the containers will have 5000 atoms of the material" after 1 year". Decay of radioactive material atoms is independent of number of containers, in which such radioactive material atoms were placed. Thus, the option (c), as alleged by the petitioners is wrong.
Further The explanation given above by the University has not been reply by contested by the petitioners' experts. University to the petitioners' experts 4 Question No.9 - Set- A, 159 in Set - B, 109 in Set - C and 59 in Set - D (Hand Written Objection raised on 19.6.2015 after seeing the Question Booklet) Contents of When en electric field is applied across a semiconductor ? the Question a. Electrons move from lower energy level to higher energy level in the conduction band.
b. Electrons move from higher energy level to lower energy level in the conduction band.
c. Holes in the valence band move from higher energy level to lower energy level.
d. Holes in the valence band move from lower energy level to higher energy level.
Contention They contended that the options (a), (b) and (d) are correct of the options.
VINOD KUMARCWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 84 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh Petitioner
Explanation When an electric field is applied across a semiconductor, then by the electrons will move from lower energy level to high energy level University in the conduction band. Thus, option (a) is correct. Due to mass of holes (heavier than electrons), cannot move across the semiconductor (Diagram).
Which means option (c) is wrong. Similarly, options (b) and (d) are also wrong, as both these statements are reciprocal of (a) and
(c). Option (c) as such is wrong itself.
Further The explanation given above by the University has not been reply by contested by the petitioners' experts. University to the petitioners' experts Question No.10 in Set - A,160 in Set - B ,110 in Set - C ,60 in Set - D 5 (Objection No.4 in the First Petition (para No.17), objection No.12 of the Second Petition and Objection raised on 19.6.2015 after seeing the Question Booklet ) Contents of In a non-transistor circuit, the collector is 10mA. If 95 percent of Question the electrons emitted reach the collector, which of the following statements are true?
a) The emitter current will be 8 mA.
b) The emitter current will be 10.53 mA.
c) The base current will be 0.53 mA.
d) The base current will be 2 mA.
Contention 1. The petitioner in the initial petition has contended that this of the question has two options i.e. .53 mA and 10.53 mA were Petitioner correct.
2. In the second petition, the petitioners contended that options (b) and (c) are correct options.
3. 3rd Objection of the petitioner is of use of word "non" Explanation In this question, according to the petitioner in the NCERT Book by the there are two correct options i.e. options (b) and (c). It may be University clarified that out of these two options, only option (b) is correct because it is mentioned in its proper units i.e milli ampere, whereas option (c) is wrong because it should have been VINOD KUMAR CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 85 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh mentioned in micro ampere not in milli ampere and the difference between two is 1000 times. The options (a) and (d) are not correct according to the data given in the question.
This question has already been answered, but the same has been again challenged because of the word "non" in the Question.
This is in relation to Transistors, which are of two types i.e. (a) n-p-n and (b) p-n-p.
The options have been asked in relation to 'non' which is as such n-p-n.
It is agreed that in the question paper, it is written as 'non', but when a student of Physics knows that there is no other transistor, "non" can easily be presumed as 'n-p-n' transistor, which is a typographical mistake. The core issue in this question is that out of the four options, as per petitioners' plea there are two correct options i.e. option (b) and (c). Whereas the Paper-Setter and the Key Expert independently believes that only option (b) is correct, because option (c), which is written in milli ampere instead of micro ampere i.e. µA is wrong. Rest of the options i.e. (a) and
(d) are wrong because by virtue of the following equation Ie = Ic + Ib Since the result of this calculation is 10.53 mA. So the first option where emitter current is 8 mA, which is wrong, while the option (d) of base current of 2 mA is wrong because base current by calculation is 0.53 x 103 µA.
Further It is reiterated that the correct answer is option (b). As already reply by stated above, option (c) is wrong because it is given in milli University to ampere (mA) instead of micro ampere (µA). Milli ampere is a the thousand times more than micro ampere. Since base current in petitioners' option (c) is very very small, it should have been mentioned in experts. micro ampere (µA) rather than milli ampere (mA). Option (c) is, therefore, not a correct option from the point of view of the strength of base current. Ie (= 100 %) = Ic (> 95 %) + Ib (< 5%), where Ie stands for emitter current, Ic stands for collector current, and Ib stands for base current. Thus, the option (b) is most appropriate/most correct.
6 Question No.11 in Set - A,161 in Set - B,111 in Set - C ,61 in Set - D (Objection No.2 of the First Petition (para No.17), Objection No.13 of the Second Petition and Objection raised on 19.6.2015 after seeing the Question Booklet ) Contents of In the depletion region of a diode Question a) There are no mobile charges.
b) Equal number of holes and electrons exist, making the VINOD KUMAR CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 86 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh region neutral
c) Recombination of holes and electrons has taken place.
d) Immobile charged ions exist.
Contention 1. In the first petition, the petitioner has contended that this of the has two correct options.
Petitioner
2. In the second petition, the petitioners contended that three options i.e. options (a), (b) and (d) are correct as per NCERT Exemplar.
Explanation In the depletion region of a diode has four options, as per the by the example of NCERT,. However, the correct option is (c). University Option (a) i.e. "There are no mobile charges" is incorrect because the statement should have been "There are no mobile charge carrier (electrons & holes)". There are atoms in the Universe, which are electrically neutral, which means it has equal number of positive and negative charges (Electron and Proton respectively). If the negative charge carrier is taken out from the atom, it becomes immobile positive donor ion. So, therefore, the correct statement in depletion region of the diode should have been that "There are No Mobile Charge Carrier" in place of "There Are No Mobile Charges".
Option (b) i.e. "Equal number of holes and electrons exist making the region neutral". This statement in relation to depletion region of diode is wrong because there are equal number of positive immobile donor ions and negative immobile acceptor ions make the depletion layer neutral.
Option (d) "Immobile Charged Ions Exist" in depletion layer is wrong, because they must exist in equal number. Thus, the statement should have been "Equal Number of Immobile Charged Ions Exist".
Option (c) "Recombination of holes and electrons has taken place" in the depletion region of the diode. This statement is correct, because this makes the depletion layer electrically neutral (equal number of electrons and holes).
Further It may be further added that when n-p-n junction is formed, then reply by on the n-side there are more electrons while the number of holes University to on the p-side is larger. Because of this concentration gradient, the electrons from n-side will diffuse towards the p-side and holes petitioners' will go towards the n-side. On crossing the p-n boundary, experts these electrons and holes may collide with each other and recombine. Thus, the most appropriate/most correct answer is option is (c), as recombination of electrons and holes takes place in the depletion region of a diode.
7 Question No.12 in Set-A, 162 in Set -B, 112 in Set - C and 62 in Set - D VINOD KUMAR CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 87 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh (Hand Written Objection raised on 19.6.2015 after seeing the Question Booklet ) Contents of Three waves, A, B and C of frequencies 1600 kHz, 5 MHz and the Question 60 MHz, respectively, are to be transmitted from one place to another. Which of the following is the most appropriate mode of communication:
a. A is transmitted via space wave while B and C are transmitted via sky wave.
b. A is transmitted via ground wave, B via sky wave and C via space wave.
c. B and C are transmitted via ground wave while A is transmitted via sky wave.
d. B is transmitted via ground wave while A and C are transmitted via space wave.
Contention Communication. Answer given - C. of the As per NCERT Exemplar (Q. 15.1 Page 98 of +2) - Answer B Petitioner Explanation Three waves, A, B and C of frequencies 1600 kHz, 5 MHz and 60 of the MHz, respectively are to be transmitted from one place to University another. Which of the following is the most appropriate mode of communication:-
Due to very high frequencies of wave B and C, they are transmitted via ground wave and due to low frequency of wave A, it is transmitted via sky wave. This is the correct option i.e. option (c).
The other options i.e. option (a) A wave is transmitted via space wave while B and C waves are transmitted via sky waves. Due to given frequencies, such transmission of given waves is not possible. Same will happen for options (b) and option (d).
Further The petitioners have explained the range for ground wave, sky reply by wave and space wave propagations and accordingly they have University to projected that option (b) i.e. "A is transmitted via ground wave, the B via sky wave and C via space wave" is correct . However, they petitioners' need to appreciate that for higher frequencies more than 1 MHz experts propagation is done through the space waves and sky waves. It is to be seen further that the range of frequencies given in the question is between 1600 kHz to 60 MHz, which is significantly less than the range given by the petitioners i.e. 530 kHz to 42 GHz. The upper limit of the range as given by the petitioners is 1000 times more than the range as given in the question. As per the range of frequencies given in the question, the correct answer is option (c).
8 Question No.14 in Set - A, 164 in Set-B, 114 in Set-C and 64 in Set-D VINOD KUMAR CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 88 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh (Objection raised in hand-written objections i.e. the objections raised on 19.6.2015 after seeing the Question Booklet). Contents of A basic communication system consists of the Question A. transmitter.
B. Information source.
C. User of information.
D. Channel E. Receiver Choose the correct sequence a. ABCDE.
b. BADEC c. BDACE d. BEADC Contention Communication - Answer given is (c). Whereas, the petitioners of the allege that as per NCERT Exemplar, Q. No.15.8 Page - 100, the Petitioner correct option is (b).
Explanation To transfer any information from one place to another place, it by the passes through few steps. First of all, there has to be some source University of information (B). This information can pass through various mediums viz. Air, Ground, Sky, Space. Such medium depends upon the specific channel (D). Then it requires some specific Antenna (Transmitter) i.e. (T). There can be a group of useful as well as un-useful information. So, it requires which type of information either useful information or un-useful information is to be registered. For this purpose, we will collect information with the help of user of information (C). Thereafter, it requires some specified collector(receiver) i.e. (E).
(Block Diagram) Thus, on the basis of above information/process, only the option
(c) is correct i.e. order "BDACE".
Petitioners contend that option (b) is correct, which means the order of Block should be "BADEC". As mentioned above, at transmitter-(T), it can have a group of useful information as well as some un-useful information. In order to receive only useful information, first of all, it must require user of required VINOD KUMAR CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 89 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh information (C), but not Receiver (E). So, user information block must be prior to Receiver block. Hence, in this manner the option
(b) (alleged by the petitioners) is wrong.
Further The block diagram given by the University above is absolutely reply by correct. According to the petitioners, the block diagram for University to communication system is "Transmitter Channel Receiver". the However, Transmission Channel (D) must come prior to petitioners' Transmitter (A) due to presence of unnecessary noise which is experts avoidable. The presence of noise at Transmitter creates distortion of the signal coming from the information source (B). Thus, the correct order is "BDACE" i.e. option (c).
9 Question No.15 in Set - A,165 in Set - B ,115 in Set - C ,65 in Set - D (Objection No.10 in the Second Petition) Contents of An audio signal of 15 kHz frequency cannot be transmitted over Question long distances without modulation because
a) the size of the required antenna would be at least 5 km which is not convenient.
b) The audio signal cannot be transmitted through sky waves.
c) The size of the required antenna would be at least 20km, which is not convenient.
d) Effective power transmitted would be very low, if the size of the antenna is less than 5 km.
Contention That the options (a), (b) and (d) are correct.
of the
Petitioner
Explanation "An audio signal 15 KHz frequency cannot be transmitted over by the long distances without modulation because:-
University Of Option (a) - which is correct i.e. "the size of required antenna would be at least 5 km which is not convenient". One can easily understand from the day to day experience that the antennas which we usually see are much smaller and it is only in meters, but certainly not in kilometers.
It is pertinent to mention that the only important issue in audio signal communication is height of transmitting antenna. Rest all the things are secondary. Since the Paper-Setter has asked only one option, the option (a) is the only most appropriate option, while rest of the statements are relative. It is further clarified that the option (d) which indicates that the "effective power transmitted would be very low, if the size of antenna is less than 5 km." whereas in the question according to 15 KHz, the length of the antenna is 5 km, which strongly contradicts the option (d).
Regarding option (b), which indicates that audio signals cannot be transmitted through sky waves, it may be made clear that audio signals are transmitted only through modulation and not through sky waves.
VINOD KUMARCWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 90 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh Further In order to transmit an audio signal by a transmitting antenna, reply by the wavelength/4 of the signal must be comparable to the height
University to of transmitting antenna.
the petitioners' Wavelength = Maximum Velocity/Frequency of Audio Signal, experts where maximum velocity is velocity of light (3 x 108 m/sec) and frequency of audio signal is 15 Hz to 15000 Hz.
Therefore, wavelength/4 = 3 x 108 / 15000 x 4 = 5 km. Such a high transmitting antenna is not feasible. This is the basic limitation of transmission of audio signals without modulation. Therefore, the most appropriate/most correct answer is option
(a).
10 Question No.16 in Set - A,166 in Set - B ,116 in Set - C ,66 in Set - D (Objection No.11 in the Second Petition) Contents of Audio sine waves of 3kHz frequency are used to amplitude Question modulate a carrier signal of 1.5 MHz which of the following statements are true?
a) The side band frequencies are 1506 kHz and 1494 kHz
b) The bandwidth required for amplitude modulation is 6 kHz.
c) The bandwidth required for amplitude modulation is 3 MHz.
d) The side band frequencies are 1503 kHz and 1497 kHz.
Contention As per petitioners, the answer/communication is (b) and (d)
of the
Petitioner
Explanation The basic principle of amplitude modulation is that it is used to by the carry weak audio signals to cover long distance over the ground University and not used for transmission of strong carrier signals. So, from point of view of Paper Setter, given question is purely related to weak audio signals.
Whereas, the correct options given in the NCERT is (b) and (d). It is important to note that in option (d), both audio signals and carrier signals exist. Therefore, option (d) is wrong.
Since, option (b) carries only audio signals, which is the theme of question that is why this option (b) is absolutely correct.
Further The analysis of amplitude modulation in the question is given
reply by below:-
University to
the 1. Bandwidth = 2 x frequency of weak audio signal petitioners' experts = 2 x 3 kHz = 6 kHz
2. Upper side band frequency = frequency of carrier signal plus VINOD KUMAR CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 91 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh frequency of weak audio signal = 1500 + 3 = 1503 kHz
3. Lower side band frequency = frequency of carrier signal minus frequency of weak audio signal = 1500 - 3 = 1497 kHz From the above calculation, it is clear that weak audio signals appear only in bandwidth i.e. step/serial no.1 above. But both weak audio signals and carrier signals appear in upper side band and lower side band i.e. steps/serial nos.2 & 3 above.
So, option (b) is absolutely correct because amplitude modulation is purely related to transmission of weak audio signals and does not transmit carrier signals.
11 Question No.17 in Set-A, 167 in Set -B, 117 in Set - C and 67 in Set - D (Objection raised on 19.6.2015 after seeing the Question Booklet ) Contents of In amplitude modulation, the modulation index m, is kept less the Question than or equal to 1 because a. m> 1, will result in interference between carrier frequency and message frequency, resulting into distortion.
b. m>1 will result in overlapping of both side bands resulting into loss of information.
c. m>1 will result in change in phase between carrier signal and message signal.
d. m>1 indicates amplitude of message signal greater than amplitude of carrier signal resulting into distortion.
Contention The petitioners have contended that it has multiple answers i.e. of the (b) and (d). They have referred the NCERT Exemplar Book's Petitioner Question No.15.14 at Page No.102 Explanation In amplitude modulation, the modulation index m, is kept less by the than or equal to 1 because University With the value of the modulation index (m) greater than one, only the correct option out of given four options (a), (b), (c) and
(d), the option (b) is correct because with the value of the modulation index (m) greater than one, there will be overlapping of the side bands resulting into loss of information as shown below:-
VINOD KUMARCWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 92 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh The option (d) is wrong because with m > 1, amplitude of message signal greater than amplitude of carrier signal resulting into distortion. This statement would have been correct had it been "m>1 indicates amplitude of modulating signal greater than amplitude of carrier signal resulting into distortion".
Further It is reiterated that option (b) is the correct answer while option reply by (d) is not. The petitioners have accepted that the correct University to explanation has been given by the University. The University's the explanation, given above, expressly rules out option (d) for the petitioners' reason specified, which is reiterated. experts 12 Question No.21 and No.26 in Set-A, 171 in Set -B, 121 in Set - C and 71 in Set - D (Objection No.10 in the First Petition (para No.17), Objection No.(iv) in the Second Petition and Question No.21 in the hand written objections i.e. the objections raised on 19.6.2015 after seeing the Question Booklet). Contents of During inelastic collision between two bodies, which of the the Question following quantities always remain conserved ?
a. Total kinetic energy b. Total Mechanical energy c. Total linear momentum d. Speed of each body Contention Questions No.21 & 26 are repeated (Same question, but different of the answers in both).
Petitioner Explanation On the basis of concept of inelastic collision, the correct option by the of question No.21 is option(c). Also in Q. No.26 of Set-A, which University has been repeated. Here the correct option is option (c) also, which has been mis-printed as option (a), which is wrong in answer key.
It is recommended that Question No.26 be cancelled and all the candidates of PMET-2015 be given equal marks for this VINOD KUMAR CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 93 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh question, whether or not they have attempted this question.
13 Further The explanation given above by the University has not been reply by contested by the petitioners' experts. University to the petitioners' experts Question No.19 & 22 in Set - A,172 in Set - B ,122 in Set - C ,72 in Set - D (Objection No.9 in the First Petition, Objection No.(iv) in the Second Petition and hand written objections i.e. objections raised on 19.6.2015 after seeing the Question Booklet) Contents of A motorboat covers a given distance in 6 hours moving Question downstream on a river. It covers the same distance in 10 hours moving upstream. The time it takes to cover the same distance in still water is ________
a) 6.5 hours b) 8 hours c) 9 hours d) 7.5 hours.
Contention Questions No.19 & 22 are repeated (Same question, but different
of the answers in both).
Petitioner
Explanation 1) The question states that "a motorboat covers a given
by the distance in 6 hours moving downstream on a river. it
University covers the same distance in 10 hours moving upstream.
The time it takes to cover the same in still water is _______".
The objection raised by the petitioner is that the paper- setter has repeated the words in statement. It is emphatically contended that there is no repetition of words technically. The theme of the question is that the same distance covered in three different situations i.e. Upstream, Downstream and Still Water. These are three different situations and one can easily imagine that the time taken against the stream, along the stream and in still water would be different.
2) On the basis of calculations, the correct option of question No.22 is option (c). Also in Question No.19 of Set-A, which has been repeated, here the correct option is option
(c) also, which has been mis-printed as option (b) in answer key.
It is recommended that Question No.19 be cancelled and all the candidates of PMET-2015 be given equal marks for this question, whether or not they have attempted this question.
Further Time taken in moving the motorboat upstream = 10 hours. reply by Time taken in moving the motorboat downstream = 6 hours.
VINOD KUMARCWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 94 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh University to For the same distance, time taken in moving the motorboat in the still water is given by ( parallelogram vector addition ) petitioners' experts ½ = (10 x 10 - 6 x 6 + 4 x 4 ) ½ = (100 - 36 + 16 ) ½ = ( 80 ) , which is 8.97 hours = approx. 9 hours. Hence, the answer given in option (c) is correct.
14 Question No.27 in Set-A, 177 in Set -B, 127 in Set - C and 77 in Set - D (Objection raised in the hand written objections i.e. the objections raised on 19.6.2015 after seeing the Question Booklet) Contents of Which of the following pairs of physical quantities does not have the Question same dimensional formula?
a. Work and torque.
b. Angular momentum and Planck's constant.
c. Tension and surface tension.
d. Impulse and linear momentum.
Contention Units & Dimension. Answer given by the University is (b). But
of the as per NCERT Exemplar Book, page 6, Q. 2.6, the correct
Petitioner answer is (c).
Explanation Option (a): work and torque
by the
University • Dimensional formula of work = Force x Distance
•
= M1L1T-2 x L1
= M1L2T-2
• Dimensional formula of Torque = Force x Perpendicular Distance = Force x Distance (because perpendicular distance is also the form of distance) = M1L1T-2 x L1 = M1L2T-2 Therefore, work and Torque have same dimensional formulas.
Option (c): Tension and surface tension • Dimensional formula of Tension = Force per unit length VINOD KUMAR CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 95 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh = Force / length = M1L1T-2/L1 = M1L0T-2 • Dimensional formula of Surface Tension = Force per unit circumference of surface = Force / length (because circumference of surface is also the form of length) = M1L1T-2/L1 = M1L0T-2 Therefore, Tension and Surface tension have same dimensional formulas.
Option (d):Impulse and Linear Momentum • Dimensional formula of Impulse = Force x Time = M1L1T-2 x T1 = M1L1T-1 • Dimensional formula of Linear Momentum According to Linear Momentum - Impulse Theorem, Impulse is defined as change in Linear Momentum. Therefore, Impulse = change in Linear Momentum = Mass x Velocity = M1 x L1T-1 = M1L1T-1 Therefore, impulse and linear momentum have same dimensional formulas.
Option (b): Angular momentum and Plancks constant.
• Dimensional formula of Angular momentum = Linear momentum x Distance = M1L1T-1 x L1 = M1L2T-1 • Dimensional formula of Plancks constant = Energy Per Unit Time = Energy/Time =Force x Distance / Time =M1 L1T-2 x L1 / T1 =M1L2T-3 Therefore angle momentum and Plancks constant have no VINOD KUMAR CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 96 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh same dimensional formulas. Therefore, option (b) is correct.
Further According to quantum theory of light, light consists of small reply byenergy packets known as photons. According to Planck's theory University toof radiations, Planck's constant is defined as energy absorbed by the a material in the form of photons in one second. Therefore, petitioners' Planck's constant is basically the energy absorbed in one experts second. We are calculating Planck's constant by using the concept of energy absorbed in one second, rather than energy absorbed per second. Thus, Planck's constant as well as angular momentum have different dimensional formulas. So, correct answer is option (b).
15 Question No.28 in Set - A,178 in Set - B ,128 in Set - C ,78 in Set - D (Objection No.1 in the First petition (para No.17), Objection No.5 in the Second Petition and also in the hand written objections i.e. the objections raised on 19.6.2015 after seeing the Question Booklet) Contents of A spring with one end attached to a mass and the other to a rigid Question support is stretched and released.
a) Magnitude of acceleration, when just released is maximum.
b) Magnitude of acceleration, when at equilibrium position, is maximum
c) Speed is maximum when mass is at equilibrium position.
d) Magnitude of displacement is always maximum whenever speed is minimum.
Contention The petitioner has contended two options as correct options i.e.
of the option (a) and option (c).
Petitioner
Explanation In the objection, the petitioner seems that this question has two by the options as per NCERT Book i.e. option (a) and option (c). University The theme of the question is that spring is tied on one end and is pulled/stretched from the other end and then released. It is very important to mention that the Spring can be released after pulling/stretching a mild distance, moderate distance and at a extreme distance i.e. totally stretched. Option (a) would have been correct, if the spring is released from the extreme position, which is not mentioned, therefore, this option is wrong. Whereas the option (c) is correct because speed is maximum always at equilibrium position.
Further It is reiterated that the correct answer is option (c) and that reply by option (a) is not correct. In option (a), it is not mentioned that University to from which position (either equilibrium position or extreme the position) the spring was released. Therefore, the correct answer petitioners' is option (c).
experts 16 Question No.29 in Set-A, 179 in Set -B, 129 in Set - C and 79 in Set - D (Hand written objections i.e. the objections raised on 19.6.2015 after seeing VINOD KUMAR CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 97 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh the Question Booklet) Contents of Three vectors, A, B and C add up to zero. Find which is false. the Question a. (A x B) x C is not zero unless, B,C are parallel b. (A x B).C is not zero unless, B,C are parallel c. If A,B,C define a plane, (AxB)xC is in that plane d. (AxB).C=|A||B||C| C2 =A2 + B2 Contention Vectors NCERT Exemplar page 21. Q. No.4.9.
of the Petitioner 1) Answer given - B. Correct answer as per book = C.
2) "d" option no use of super-script. NCERT Exemplar Page-58 Explanation The paper setter has asked to identify the false statement.
by the University Options (a), (c) and (d) are True Statements. Thus, these options
cannot be the correct answer because the paper-setter has asked to identify the False statement.
In option (b), these vectors become zero when B & C are parallel. Whereas in this option, it is mentioned that these vectors do not become zero. That is why this statement is false, which has been asked to identify by the Paper Setter.
Rest of all the statements i.e. (a), (c) and (d) are correct statements and as per the demand of question, are wrong options. Any two vectors (e.g. mentioned as Vector A, B & C) can be multiplied through two mathematical operations. If resultant physical quantity after multiplication is scaler (only magnitude), then operation is known as Dot Product (.)and if resultant physical quantity after multiplication is vector (both magnitude and direction), then the operation is known as Cross Product (x). Such operations (e.g. multiplication between two vectors) have been clearly mentioned in the options of Question Booklet.
Moreover, it is important to mention here that in books like University Physics at secondary level (W.Feyman et al), there is no use of other Vector Symbols like Superscripts (as mentioned by the petitioner). Only Dot Product and Cross Product are mentioned and are sufficient.
Further The petitioners have contended that there are printing errors in reply to the all the options, without specifying any particular printing error. petitioners' The only printing error can be that the symbol of vectors is not experts given in any of the options. The symbol of vector is an overhead arrow above A, B and C. For example, A should be printed as A. Since the words "Three Vectors A, B and C" are expressly written in the opening line of the question, the meaning is absolutely clear and it is not necessary to write the same in VINOD KUMAR CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 98 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh symbolic form also.
17 Question No.30 in Set-A, 180 in Set - B, 130 in Set-C and 80 in Set-D Contents of A hockey player is moving northward and suddenly turns the question westward with the same speed to avoid an opponent. The force that acts on the player is a. frictional force along westward b. Muscle force along southward c. Frictional force along south-west d. Muscle force along south-west Contention Bulk matter. According to NCERT exemplar +1, Page 78 Q. 11.4 of the answer is (a) but given answer is (b). Petitioner Explanation The petitioner contended that this question pertains to "Bulk by the Matter". The correct word is "Bulk Modulus" and there is no University question pertaining to this in Question No.30. None of the questions in the Question Booklet pertain to Bulk Modulus.
Further Explanation given above by the University has not been reply by contested by the petitioners' experts except to say that the University to question has not been reproduced. The same is being done. the petitioners' experts 18 Question No.32 in Set - A,182 in Set - B ,132 in Set - C ,82 in Set - D (Objection No.15 of the Second Petition and Question No.32 in the Handwritten objections i.e. the objections raised on 19.6.2015 after seeing the Question Booklet).
Contents of A bullet of mass m fired at 300 to the horizontal leaves the barrel Question of the gun with a velocity v. The bullet hits a soft target at a height h above the ground while it is moving downward and emerges out with half the kinetic energy it had before hitting the target. Which of the following statements is correct in respect of bullet after it emerges out of the target ?
a) The velocity of the bullet will be reduced to half its initial value.
b) The velocity of the bullet will be more than half of its earlier velocity.
c) The bullet will continue to move along the same parabolic path
d) The bullet will move in a different parabolic path.
Contention 300 angle instead of 30° and there are also 2 correct options i.e.
of the options (b) and (d)
Petitioner
Explanation Question is "A bullet of mass m fired at 300 to the horizontal by the leaves the barrel of the gun with a velocity v. The bullet hits a University soft target at a height h above the ground while it is moving downward and emerges out with half the kinetic energy it had VINOD KUMAR CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 99 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh before hitting the target. Which of the following statements is correct in respect of bullet after it emerges out of the target ?
The paper-setter ofcourse has taken the question from the NCERT Book, where the bullet is fired at 30o and there are 6 options in the NCERT Book. The options in our question papers are only four. So, the paper-setter has modified the question to see the applicability of mind of student by changing the value to
300. You will agree that if the person is on the ground, he can fire from 0 to 180o . In order to fire at 300o the candidate has to apply his mind and the only plausible answer is that the shooter is standing at a height and can shoot at total of 360o whereas the question asked is for shooting at 300o. The only correct option with respect to given value in question booklet is (c). Whereas rest of the options/statements are not possible at this angle. Such situations are invariably seen in various movies where the shooter shoots from a height, on the objects below it and he can hit correctly by making parabola and it is only with the parabola, the bullet moves.
Further As already stated above, the paper-setter has changed the angle reply byto test the applicability of mind by the candidates. Whenever a University tobullet is fired in relation to the horizontal, it implies that it is petitioners' fired at some angle. The words "fired at 300 to the horizontal"
experts therefore implies that it is fired at an angle of 3000 in relation to the horizontal.
19 Question No.38 in Set - A,188 in Set - B,138 in Set - C,88 in Set - D (Objection No.11 of the First Petition (para No.17), Objection No.15 in the Second Petition and Question No.38 in the hand-written objections i.e. the objections raised on 19.6.2015 after seeing the Question Booklet) Contents of An ideal gas undergoes isothermal process from some initial Question state i to final state f. Choose correct alternatives.
a) dU=0 b) dQ = 0 c) dQ = dU d) dQ = dW
Contention As per NCERT exemplar problems of 10+2, the correct options
of the given are a) and d) whereas the committee has wrongly declared
Petitioner answer dQ = 0 as correct option.
Explanation The total energy of a system may be divided into two parts-
by the (1). The internal energy and (2) the external energy
University
The internal energy (U) consists of the kinetic energy of molecular motion and potential energy of intermolecular forces.
The external energy of a system is measured by the work (W) which would be performed by the system in expanding from initial state (I.S) to final state (F.S). Therefore total energy (E) of the system is given by:VINOD KUMAR
CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 100 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh E = U+W
Let us suppose that a quantity of heat "dQ" is absorbed by a system from an external source, as a consequence of which the pressure, volume and temperature of the system change and system reaches to final state.
Let in initial state (I.S), E= Total Energy of the system U= Internal Energy of the system W= Work done by the system.
Let in final state (F.S), E+dE = Total Energy of the system U+dU = Internal Energy of the system W+dW = Work done by the system.
Therefore, the change in energy of the system with absorption of heat energy 'dQ' from initial state (I.S) to final state (F.S.)is given by:
E+dE -E =U+dU-U+W+dW-W dE= dU+dW By the principle of conservation of energy, the change in energy of the system must be equal to heat energy absorbed by the system.
Therefore, dQ = dE = dU + dW. This is known as first law of thermodynamics.
As mentioned in question, our system is ideal gas system. For such system heat energy is not allowed to enter the system as well as to leave the system. Therefore, there is no change in energy of the system. Which implies that (dE) is equal to zero.
Or dQ=dE=dU+dW=0 Or dQ=0 .This is the correct option that is option (b).
Also, from above equation,
0=dU+dW,
VINOD KUMAR
CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 101 )
2015.09.01 14:21
I attest to the accuracy and
authenticity of this document
Chandigarh
Or dU= - (dW),
Or dW = - (dU).
• The option (d) that is dQ = dW is wrong, because by calculations dW = - (dU) instead of dW = dQ. So the option ( d ) is wrong.
The option (a), that is, dU = 0 is also wrong, because by calculations dU = -( dW) instead of dU = 0. So the option (a) is also wrong.
Further A detailed explanation has already been given above. It may reply by be added that the question states that an ideal gas undergoes University to isothermal process from some initial state i to final state f. the So, it is a non-cyclic process where the change in internal petitioners' energy (dU) is not equal to zero. dU would be equal to zero experts only if the given process is cyclic. Therefore, option (a) i.e. dU = 0 is wrong. On the contrary, the change in heat energy (dQ) is equal to zero. Therefore, the correct option is (b) i.e. dQ = 0. Option (d) i.e. dQ = dW is also wrong, since dQ is not equal to dW. As already stated above, dQ = dE = dU + dW = 0, or dW = - (dU).
20 Question No.40 in Set - A ,190 in Set - B ,140 in Set - C ,90 in Set - D (Objection No.7 in the Second Petition) Contents of A particle is acted simultaneously by mutually perpendicular Question simple harmonic motions x = a cost t and y = a sin t. The trajectory of motion of the particle will be ______.
a) an ellipse b) A parabola c) A circle d) A straight line Contention The petitioner is quoting that the question in booklet is as under:-
of the
Petitioner "The displacement of a string is given by y (x,t) = 0.06 sin (2
πx/3) cos (120 πt), where x and y are in m and tin s."
They alleged that this question has two correct options i.e. options (b) and (c).
Explanation The statement, which the petitioner is contending as per the by the NCERT Book has not been given by the Paper-Setter, where the University statement is grossly different. Thus, the answers as per NCERT Book are not relevant to the statement given by the petitioners, as this question (as stated above by the petitioner) has not been asked and correct option in the statement as per the asked question of question booklet is option is (d).
Further In the question "x = a cos t and y = a sin t", it is not mentioned
reply by whether a (amplitude) is constant or variable. For equation of
VINOD KUMAR
CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 102 )
2015.09.01 14:21
I attest to the accuracy and
authenticity of this document
Chandigarh
University to Circle, amplitude (which represents the radius of Circle) must be the constant.
petitioners'
experts x = a cos t, y = a sin t
2 2 2
x = a cos t, y2 = a2 sin2 t
x2 + y2 = a2
y2 = a2 - x2
y = (a2 - x2)½
This equation implies that 'y' is a function of 'x' and not a function of x2 . This means that the above equation resembles the equation of a straight line passing through origin i.e. y = mx (where 'm' is slope of line). Thus, trajectory of motion of particle will be a straight line. So, option (d) is correct. Option (c) is not correct because it is not mentioned in the question whether amplitude 'a' is constant or variable.
21 Question no.42 in Set-A, 192 in Set - B, 142 in Set-C and 92 in Set-D. (Objection No.14 in the Second Petition and Question No.42 in the hand- written objections i.e. the objections raised on 19.6.2015 after seeing the Question Booklet) Contents of A train, standing in a station yard, blows a whistle of frequency the question 400 Hz in still air. The wind starts blowing in the direction from the yard to the station with a speed of 10 m/s. Given that the speed of sound in still air is 340 m/s, a. the frequency of sound as heard by an observer standing on the platform is 400 Hz.
b. the speed of sound for the observer standing on the platform is 350 m/s.
c. the frequency of sound as heard by the observer standing on the platform will increase.
d. the frequency of sound as heard by the observer standing on the platform will decrease.
Contention The petitioner contends that it has two correct options i.e. options
of the (a) and (b).
petitioner
Explanation In the objection the petitioners seem that this question has two by the correct options i.e. option (a) and (b). University Since the Observer is standing on the Platform and Train is standing in the yard, the speed of the sound in the still Air is 340 m/s. Since the wind starts blowing in the direction of the yard to platform with a speed of 10 m/s, the question pertains to the speed and not to the frequency and the Observer will experience VINOD KUMAR CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 103 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh the speed of sound, as some of the sound of still Air will plus (+) speed of the wind as per the Doppler Effect, which indicates that when the two objects are leaving in the opposite direction/coming close to each other, the relative speed is added while when they go apart, relative speed is substracted (-). Further, option (a) pertains to the frequency, whereas the question is related to the relative velocity. So, option (a) is not relevant. Thus, option (b) is correct option. Further It is reiterated that, as per the detailed explanation given above, reply by the most appropriate/most correct answer is option (b). University to the petitioners' experts 22 Question No.45 in Set-A, 195 in Set -B, 145 in Set - C and 95 in Set - D (Hand written objections i.e. the objections raised on 19.6.2015 after seeing the Question Booklet) Contents of A current carrying circular loop of radius R is placed in the x-y the Question plane with centre at the origin. Half of the loop with x > 0 is now bent so that it now lies in the y-z plane.
a. The magnitude of magnetic moment now diminishes b. The magnetic moment does not change.
c. The magnitude of B at (0.0.z), z>> R increases. d. The magnitude of B at (0.0.z), z>> R is unchanged.
Contention Magnetic field. NCERT exemplary page 23 of 10+2 of 4.3. of the Answer given - C. Answer by book - A. Petitioner Explanation A current carrying circular loop of radius R is placed in the x-y of the plane with centre at the origin. Half of the loop x > 0 is now bent University so that it now lies in the y-z plane.
According to the calculations mentioned below:-
the magnitude of the magnetic moment now diminishes, which is option (a), is wrong, as the magnitude of magnetic moment decreases as per above Formula.
There is material difference between words "Diminishes"VINOD KUMAR
CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 104 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh and "Decreases" i.e. Diminishes means Disappear after sometime, whereas 'Decreases' means Getting Reduced for sometime before Diminishing.
The option (b) indicates that the magnetic moment does not change, but as per above Formula, it decreases, which means it changes. Thus, this option (b) is wrong.
Coming to the option (d) (alleged by the petitioner), the magnitude of B at (0.0.z), z >> R is unchanged. Thus, this option is also wrong, because 'z' co-ordinate is variable. Since the 'z' is variable, so magnitude of magnetic field will change, whereas the statement of the Question says that it is "unchanged". That is why it is wrong option. Further The explanation given above by the University has not been reply by contested by the petitioners' experts. University to the petitioners' experts
23 Question No.47 in Set - A, 197 in Set-B, 147 in Set - C and 97 in Set - D (Hand written objections i.e. the objections raised on 19.6.2015 after seeing the Question Booklet) Contents of If the rms current in a 50 Hz ac circuit is 5 A, the value of the the Question current 1/300 seconds after its value becomes zero is a. 52 A b. 53/2 A c. 5/6 A d. 5/2 A Contention Alternating current NCERT Exemplary of Question 7.1 page 40 of the (In the question paper none of the option contains under-root.
Petitioner
Explanation In the rms (root mean square) current in a 50 Hz ac circuit is 5
by the A, the value of the current 1/300 seconds after its value becomes
University zero is
By the following calculation:-
The correct answer is 5/6 A i.e. option (c). The petitioner contends that all the options i.e. (a), (b),(c) and (d) should have root " ".
Since, the options (a), (b) and (d) by calculation are as such VINOD KUMAR CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 105 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh wrong, so it is beyond comprehension. So, that is why the petitioner is claiming that there should be under root over some digits. Probably the contender/petitioner is confused with some other situation.
To explain further, following clarification is given as under:-
A. 2 ½ x 2 B. 1.414 x 2 On solving the above option (A), the answer will 1.414 x 2, which is option (B). On solving both, the answer will be same i.e. 2.828. So, there is no difference between (A) and (B). But option is written in under-root form, whereas (B) is written in simple. So, both have same sense.
Thus, there was no need of under root symbol.
Further From exponential series:
reply by
University to exp(2πft)= exp(2x22/7x50x1/300)=exp*(1.048) the where * is exponential function.
petitioners' experts exp(1.048)=1+x+x.x/2+x.x.x/6+..........exponential series Therefore, I = 1.414 x 5 x exp(1.048) From the above equation, I =5/6 A i.e. option (c), which is the correct option. The petitioners have calculated with a sin graph (starting from mean position), which is not mentioned in the question. In fact, it has to be calculated by exponential function (e). The options or answers as given by the petitioners are not correct. 24 Question No.50 in Set - A, 200 in Set - B, 150 in Set - C and 100 in Set-D (Hand written objections i.e. the objections raised on 19.6.2015 after seeing the Question Booklet) Contents of The line that draws power supply to your house from street has the Question a. zero average current. b. 220 V average c. Voltage and current out of d. None of these. phase by 900 Contention Alternating current - NCERT exemplar Page 43 of _____ - (1) of the In third option instead of 900 it is 900 (2) correct answer as per Petitioner book is (A & D) whereas Answer Key given B. Explanation The line that draws power supply to your houses from street has of the :-
University There are four options i.e. (a) zero average current (b) 220 V average voltage (c) Voltage and current out of phase by right VINOD KUMAR CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 106 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh angle (d) None of the above.
The petitioner contends that option (a) i.e. Zero average current and option (d) i.e. none of the above are correct.
It is a common observation that the power supply which comes to our houses is 220 V, which is correct option (b).
As per the NCERT Book, the options (a) and (d) are correct (as alleged by the petitioners). But it is beyond comprehension as to how option (a) Zero Average Current is correct as well as option
(d). Neither of them are correct.
Further It is reiterated that option (b) i.e. '220 V average' is the correct reply by answer. In AC Circuits, the average value of alternating current University to over one complete time period/cycle is always zero. However, in the option (a) it is not mentioned whether the current is alternating petitioners' current or direct current. So, option (a) is wrong. experts 25 Question No.53 in Set - A, 3 in Set - B, 153 in Set - C, 103 in Set - D (Objection No.8 in the petition, Objection No.(vi) in the Second Petition and also in the hand written objections i.e. the objections raised on 19.6.2015 after seeing the Question Booklet) Contents of At 2000 C Hydrogen molecule have velocity 105cm/s. The de Question Broglie wavelength in this case is approximately:-
The options of this question are:-
a. 2 Ao b. 1000 Ao c. 100 Ao d. 10 Ao Contention As per the question, the value of velocity given was 105 cm per of the second. With this value, no answer as given by respondent can Petitioner be derived. The value as determined by respondent could be had 105 cm per second been mentioned instead of 105 cm per second.
Explanation The question states that at 2000 C Hydrogen molecule have by the velocity 105cm/s. The de Broglie wavelength in this case is University approximately:-
The options of this question are:-
a. 2 Ao b. 1000 Ao c. 100 Ao d. 10 Ao As per the NCERT Book at page No.46 it is very rightly mentioned that this question pertains to Bohr's theory, the VINOD KUMAR CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 107 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh formula is :- λ= h mv Where h is Planck's constant, m is the mass of particle and v is velocity. The Paper Setter has asked to find out the wavelength at 200o C Hydrogen Molecule whose mass is 2gms). If the weight is 2gms and have velocity of 1.05 m/sec., the wavelength comes out to be approximately 1.89 which is approximately 2, which is option a. (2 Ao). On further elaboration, it may be mentioned that when the mass is in Kilograms, then the wavelength comes out to be 1899 approximately. In this question if one uses mass of Hydrogen in the unit of Kilograms, then the wavelength would be 1899 approximately. The Paper setter has asked 4 options i.e. 2 Ao, 1000 Ao, 100 Ao and 10 Ao. With these units, the wavelength is no way near to the four options asked by the Paper Setter. So, from this, it is evident that the units used by him to answer the correct option is 2 gms. It is a prerogative of the Paper Setter that he asks the question in which form and the candidate has to answer among those four options, which are set by the Paper Setter.
Further Merely because in the NCERT book 105 cm/sec does not exist, it reply by does not mean that value cannot be 105 cm/sec. The paper-setter University to has put this as 105 cm/sec and the candidate has to apply the the Chemistry to this figure and not that which is perceived by him petitioners' from any other source. What is expected from the candidate is to experts know the Chemistry and calculate accordingly. If one calculates with 105 cm/sec, the value comes near to 2 Ao, which is option
(a), while options (b), (c) and (d) are far away from 2 Ao. Thus, they are incorrect.
26 Question No.57 in Set-A, 7 in Set -B, 157 in Set - C and 107 in Set - D (Hand written objections i.e. the objections raised on 19.6.2015 after seeing the Question Booklet) Contents of Which of the following is not isoelectronic :-
the Question a. Na+ b. Mg2+ c. O2- d. Cl-
FIRST Option (c) and (d) written as O2- & Cl instead of O2- and Cl-
Contention
of the
Petitioner
Explanation There are four options and the correct option is (d), which is Cl-. by the While evaluating this answer, none of the three other options i.e. University (a) Na+ (b) Mg2+ (c) O2- are anyway near to the correct answer, as all of them have 10 electrons, whereas the correct answer Cl- has 18 electrons. The observations made by the petitioner is that the options (c) and (d) are written as O2- and Cl, whereas it VINOD KUMAR CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 108 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh should have been written as O2- and Cl-. It is pertinent to note that in the question, it is clearly mentioned Cl-. The petitioner wanted O2- to be written as O2-. The O2- is also wrongly written by the petitioner as it reflects the molecular state of the Oxygen, whereas the Question Paper refers to the atomic state of the Oxygen.
Further It is reiterated and emphasized that all the options are in atomic reply by forms. Therefore, the one which is not isoelectronic is option University to (d) i.e. Cl-/Cl-. The petitioners are trying to mix the Atomic the Forms with the Molecular Forms, which has not been asked. petitioners' Even if one takes option (c) as Molecular Form which is called experts Superoxide Ion, then options (a) & (b) each will have 10 electrons and options (c) & (d) each will have 17 electrons. Thus, there will be two options i.e. (a) & (b) that are isoelectronic with 10 electrons each ; and options (c) & (d) that are also isoelectronic with 17 electrons each, which does not make any sense. Whereas the question is as to which (of the following options) is NOT is oelectronic. Therefore, out of these four, the only option which is not isoelectronic is option
(d) i.e. Cl-.
27 Question No.61 - Set A, 11 in Set -B, 161 in Set - C and 111 in Set - D (Hand written objections i.e. the objections raised on 19.6.2015 after seeing the Question Booklet) Contents of The bond order of O2- is :-
the Question a. 0.5 b. 1.5 c. 3.5 d. 2.5 Contention Bond order of O2- instead of O2-
of the
petitioner
Explanation By calculating the bond order, we find the stability of molecules.
by the Bond order is defined as half of the difference between the
University number of electrons in the bonding and antibonding orbitals. i.e.
Bond order is equal to ½ (Nb - Na). The molecule is stable if Nb > Na i.e. if the bond order is positive. The molecule is unstable if Nb < Na or Nb = Na i.e. if the bond order is negative or Zero. We are dealing with O2 molecule and its ions i.e. O2+ , O2- and O22- . Bond order of O2 molecule is 2 O2+ it is 2.5 O2- (Superoxide ion) = 1.5 O22- ion (peroxide) = 1 Hence out of the four possibilities O2, O2+, O2-, O22- O2- can be taken as only O2- among the aforesaid visible four possibilities and the bond order is 1.5 i.e. option (b).VINOD KUMAR
CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 109 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh Out of the options given, there cannot be the order of 0.5 i.e. option(a), or 3.5 i.e. option (c). The option (d) which is 2.5 is depicted as bond order of O2+ whereas the question asked is bond order of O2-.
Further The explanation is so lucid and cannot be further elaborated. reply by The observation by the petitioners that it is vague is patently University to untenable.
the petitioners' experts
28 Question No.71 in Set - A ,21 in Set - B ,171 in Set - C ,121 in Set - D (Objection No.12 in the First Petition and in the hand written objections i.e. the objections raised on 19.6.2015 after seeing the Question Booklet) Contents of Argon was discovered by Question a) Rayleigh b) Ramsay c) Lockyr d) None of the above Contention Argon discovered by both Rayleigh and Ramsay.
of the
Petitioner
Explanation Rayleigh 1892 was pioneer to discover Argon. However, Ramsay by the 1894 further worked on this and gave it the name. Therefore, the University discovery of Argon, goes to the credit of Rayleigh. Lord Rayleigh (1892) observed that atmospheric nitrogen obtained from air by the removal of Oxygen, CO2 and Moisture had a density (about 0.5%) higher than nitrogen prepared by heating ammonium nitrite. This led to the suspicion that some inert gas heavier than nitrogen was present in the Air and this was found to be argon.
NH4NO2 N2 + 2H2O In 1894, Ramsay took a purified sample of air (after removing moisture and carbon dioxide) and repeatedly passed it over red hot copper to remove all oxygen (as CuO and then over red hot magnesium 2Cu + O2 2CuO 3 Mg + N2 Mg3N2, to remove all nitrogen (as Mg3N2). The residual gas which was nearly 1% of the volume of air taken was found to be completely unreactive. This inert gas was found to be much denser than nitrogen and gave a spectrum quite different from that of nitrogen. So, the correct option is (a) i.e. Rayleigh. Further In the reaction, NH4 NO2 N2 + 2H2O, for the first time in reply by the world of Chemistry Rayleigh found that Nitrogen which is University to formed in this reaction is lighter than the one obtained by the purifying the air. If that is so, Rayleigh is rightly considered to petitioners' be the prime discoverer in 1892. His findings were later on re-
experts confirmed by Ramsay in 1894. VINOD KUMAR CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 110 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh
29 Question No.84 in Set - A, 34 in Set - B ,184 in Set - C ,134 in Set - D (Objection No.7 in the First Petition, Objection No.(ii) in the Second Petition and also in the hand written objections i.e. the objections raised on 19.6.2015 after seeing the Question Booklet) Contents of Formaldehyde is treated with KOH (Caustic Potash) gives Question methanol and potassium. The reaction is known as
a) Perkin's reaction b) Claisen's reaction
c) Cannizarro's reaction d) Knoevenagel's reaction Contention Cannizzaro reaction: Aldehydes which do not have any hydrogen of the atom, undergo self oxidation and reduction (disproportionate) Petitioner reaction on treatment with concentrated alkali. In this reaction, one molecule of the aldehyde is reduced to alcohol while another is oxidized to carboxylic acid salt. (as per NCERT text book of 10+2) whereas the University says formaldehyde's reaction with KOH yields Methanol and Potassium which is not possible.
Formaldehyde + Formaldehyde + KOH = Methanol + Potassium Formate Explanation Here question is when formaldehyde is treated with KOH, it by the gives Methanol and any salt which is with the base. So, when University formaldehyde is treated with base, which could be KOH or NaOH, which gives rise to Methanol and the first element of the base. The examiner has asked the name of this reaction. There are 4 options :-
a. Perkin's reaction (which relates Benzaldehyde with Acetic Anhydride to give cinnamic acid ) b. Claisen's reaction (which is reaction between Benzaldeyhde and Acetaldehyde to give cinnamaldehyde) c. Cannizarro's reaction (which is reaction between formaldehyde and KOH, which gives Methanol and Potassium salt of the acid).
d. Knoevenagel's reaction (This is a reaction between Aldehyde or ketone with active methylene compound which gives 'α', 'β-unsaturated acid).
It is evident that formaldehyde and KOH reaction is clearly visible as Cannizarro's Reaction.
The observation made by the petitioner, which is beyond the essence of question, is that in the question Potassium is written instead of Potassium Formate. It may be mentioned that if in place of KOH, NaOH can also be made to react, then reaction would be Methyl Alcohol and Sodium Formate. So, the importance lies in the reaction of Formaldehyde with KOH producing Methanol and Sodium or Potassium, which could be that of formate. So, there is no ambiguity in the statement that VINOD KUMAR CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 111 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh when formaldehyde reacts with KOH, it is Cannizarro's reaction and in no way there is other correct option. Further The essence of the question is reaction between Formaldehyde reply by and KOH. As explained earlier also, Potassium salt of the acid University to can also be replaced by Sodium salt. Thus, the importance lies in the the reaction of Formaldehyde with KOH producing Methanol petitioners' and the other component of Sodium/Potassium can only be of the experts formate according to the reaction. The other three reactions i.e.
(a), (b) & (d) are not on this concept.
30 Question No.91 in Set - A, 41 in Set - B, 191 in Set-C and 141 in Set - D (Hand written objections i.e. the objections raised on 19.6.2015 after seeing the Question Booklet) Contents of Which of the following substance is Arrhenius Base, but not the Question Bronsted Base ?
(a) NaOH (b) CO3-2 (c) NH3 and (d) H2O Contention Option (b) CO3-2 does not make any sense.
of the
petitioner
Explanation The substance which is Arrhenius Base can give OH ion in by the aqueous solution while Bronsted is the one, which can accept a University proton. There are four options i.e. (a) NaOH (b) CO3-2 (c) NH3 and (d) H2O. The observation made by the petitioners is that CO3-2 does not make any sense.
Petitioners have also stated that in whole of the Chemistry Section there was no use of superscripts and subscripts. Of course, CO3-2 as such should have been written as CO32- . However, since CO32- does not contain OH ion, so it is not a Arrhenius Base.
It is important to mention that merely by the look of the element, a person who knows a bit of Chemistry easily understands that H2O stands for Water and wherever, it is written like this, the brain perceives it as Water as such. It is also important to appreciate that numerous candidates who have scored significant marks in this question paper have understood H2O as Water and this has both properties of Arrhenius Base and Bronsted Base. Similarly, CO3-2 has been taken as CO32- (Carbonate ion). Further, NH3 and CO3-2 which is options (c) and (b) are only Bronsted Bases. Thus, for any student of Chemistry, NaOH is the only suitable option, which is Arrhenius Base because it can donate OH ion in aqueous solution and it is not a Bronsted Base. CO3-2/CO32- as such has no relevance in this question, as this is not the correct answer.
Further According to the petitioners' experts, NaOH can be treated both reply by as Arrhenius and Bronsted base. This is wrong. NaOH is University to Arrhenius base only in the presence of water. According to + the Arrhenius concept, an acid is a substance which can give H petitioners' ions. According to Bronsted theory, an acid is a substance which VINOD KUMAR CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 112 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh experts can donate a proton. Hence, all Arrhenius acids are also Bronsted acids. However, there is a difference in the definition of base. According to the Arrhenius concept, a base is a substance
-
which can donate OH ions. Therefore, a base must be a source
-
of OH ions in aqueous medium. But Bronsted theory requires a base to be a proton acceptor. Hence, Arrhenius base may not be Bronsted base. NaOH is a base according to Arrhenius theory
-
because it gives OH ions in aqueous solution, but NaOH does not accept a proton as such. Thus, it is not a base according to Bronsted theory. Hence, option (a) is correct.
31 Question No.130 in Set-A, 80 in Set -B, 30 in Set - C and 180 in Set - D (Hand written objections i.e. the objections raised on 19.6.2015 after seeing the Question Booklet) Contents of Ru Bis Co is?
the Question a. Ru BP carboxylase
b. Ru BP oxi genase
c. Ru BP carboxylase - oxygenase
d. Ru BP carboxydismutase
Contention Ru Bis Co. Answer given - A.
of the Answer is C.
petitioner
Explanation Ru Bis Co is an abbreviation i.e. short name of an enzyme
by the Ribulose 1.5 Buphosphate carboxylase that catalyses the
University carboxylation reaction i.e. fixation of CO2 during C3 cycle of
photosynthesis. However, Rubisco also acts as oxygenase under specific conditions i.e. low cone of CO2, high cone of O2 and high temperature and lead to C2 cycle i.e. Photorespiration in plants. Since the paper-setter has not mentioned any specific condition, therefore the answer given in the key i.e. (a) is correct. Further The explanation given above by the University has not been reply by contested by the petitioners' experts. University to the petitioners' experts 32 Question No.136 in Set - A,86 in Set - B ,36 in Set - C ,186 in Set - D (Objection No.16 in the First Petition) Contents of Growth in plant is?
Question
a) Only determinate b) only indeterminate
c) Mostly determinate d) both determinate and indeterminate Contention In para 17 (16) of CWP No. 11475 is "A question on biology of the regarding plant growth was doubtful."
VINOD KUMARCWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 113 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh Petitioner
Explanation The question is growth in plant is:-
by the
University a) Only determinate b) Only indeterminate
c) Mostly determinate d) Both determinate and indeterminate The growth in plant is generally indeterminate (unlimited/continuous growth). But there are plants/organs which show determinate growth (limited/definite growth). This may be further elaborated as follows:-
Example No.1 :- Branching pattern in higher plants are of basically two types i.e. i. Racemose ii. Cymose In RACEMOSE type of branching, the stem shows unlimited growth because of the activity of its growing point throughout the life of plant. Therefore, this is indeterminate type of growth.
In CYMOSE type of branching, the stem shows limited growth because of the death/modification of growing point. Thus, it is indeterminate type of growth.
Example No.2:-
Annual plants show determinate growth, set flower and fruit and ultimately die.
Example No.3:-
Plant parts having definite shape (leaves, fruits, flowers) show determinate growth. Therefore, answer to the above-mentioned question is option (d), both determinate and indeterminate. Further The explanation given above by the University has not been reply by contested by the petitioners' experts. University to the petitioners' experts
33 Question No.164 in Set-A, 114 in Set -B, 64 in Set - C and 14 in Set - D (Hand written objections i.e. the objections raised on 19.6.2015 after seeing the Question Booklet) Contents of Ligaments are made up of ?
the Question a. White fibres and b. White fibres only
some yellow fibres
c. Yellow fibres only d. Yellow fibers and muscle fibres
Contention
VINOD KUMAR
CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 114 )
2015.09.01 14:21
I attest to the accuracy and
authenticity of this document
Chandigarh
of the Ligaments are made up of Yellow fibres only.
Petitioner
Explanation The correct option is option (a) i.e. it has both fibres. The
by the Ligament is fibrous connective tissue which connects the two
University. bones. Ligaments have two types of fibres: White & Yellow.
White ligaments are rich in collagenous tissue which are sturdy and inelastic and yellow ligaments are rich in elastic fibres. White ligament fibres are crisscross and overlapped. Thus, both type of fibres i.e. yellow and white constitutes the composition of ligament.
Further Option (d) indicates that there are yellow fibres and muscle reply by fibres. Ligaments per se do not possess any muscle fibres. So, the University to option yellow fibres and muscle fibres is absolutely wrong. There the is only one ligament, which consists purely of yellow fibres i.e. petitioners' ligamentum flavum in spine. Rest of all the ligaments are a experts. mixture of yellow and white fibres.
34 Question No.169 in Set-A, 119 in Set -B, 69 in Set - C and 19 in Set - D (Hand written objections i.e. the objections raised on 19.6.2015 after seeing the Question Booklet) Contents of The study of fish culture is called ?
the Question a. Ophiology b. Ichthyology
c. Herpetology d. Pisciculture
Contention
of the Study of fish culture is Ichthyology instead of Pisciculture
petitioner
Explanation The breeding, rearing, and transplantation of fish by artificial by the means is called pisciculture. Thus, study of Fish culture is known University as "Pisciculture", whereas Ichthyology is study of Fish, not Fish Culture.
Ichthyology, option (b) is a study of Fish, which is a branch of Zoology (study of animals).
Option (a) i.e. Ophiology is branch of Zoology concerned with study of snakes.
Option (c) i.e. Herpetology is branch of Zoology concerned with study of amphibians (including frogs, toads, salamanders etc.)and creeping animals like lizard Further The petitioners' experts have acknowledged that the "culturing reply by of fish in pond is pisciculture". Yet, the significance of the University to question ("the study of fish culture is called") continues to the escape them. It is emphasized that the question relates to study of petitioners' fish culture (which is pisciculture) and not to study of fishes per experts se (which is Ichthyology).
VINOD KUMARCWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 115 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh 35 Question No.177 in Set - A, 127 in Set-B, 77 in Set -C, and 27 in Set-D (Objection No.15 in the First Petition (para No.17) Contents of Which of the following statements is correct?
the Question a. During inspiration b. Syanosis means
external intercostals collapse of alveoli
muscles and diaphragm
contract
c. Eupnea is slow d. Coryza is caused by
breathing human coronavirus
Contention Petitioner has mentioned that the question demands correct or
of the incorrect statement. There is no such statement in the question.
Petitioner
Explanation In this question, the candidate was to identify only correct by the statement. Out of the 4 options given, it is only the option - 'A' University (DURING INSPIRATION EXTERNAL INTERCOSTALS MUSCLES AND DIAPHRAGM CONTRACT) is the only correct statement. Whereas all other statements pertaining to slow breathing, syanosis and coryza are wrong.
Further The correct option is (a) i.e. "During Inspiration external reply by intercostals muscles and diaphragm contract". The statements in University to the other options i.e. options (b), (c) & (d) are incorrect. Spelling the of Syanosis in place of Cynosis does not indicate it is collapse of petitioners' alveoli. Cynosis is a condition of reduced haemoglobin, in experts which skin and mucus membranes show blue discoloration, which happens because of less oxygen in blood and it is not the collapse of alveoli. Option (c) relates to slow breathing, which in Biology is known as Brachypnea and not Eupnea. Similarly, Coryza is caused upto 80% by Rhinoviruses and only upto 10 % by Human coronavirus. Thus, all the options (b), (c) & (d), are incorrect.
36 Question No.180 in Set-A, 130 in Set-B, 80 in Set-C and 30 in Set-D (Objection No.15 in the First Petition (para No.17) Contents of Which one of the following statements is correct with regard to the Question the principal of the safe blood transfusion?
a. The donors RBC should not contain antibodies against the recipient's serum b. The recipient's serum should not contain antigens against the donor's anti bodies.
c. The recipient serum should not contain the anti bodies against the RBC of the donor d. The recipient RBC should not contain antibodies against the donor's antigen.
Contention
of the
Petitioner
VINOD KUMAR
CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 116 )
2015.09.01 14:21
I attest to the accuracy and
authenticity of this document
Chandigarh
Explanation The question reads that as to which statement is correct with by the regard to PRINCIPLE OF THE SAFE BLOOD University TRANSFUSION. The correct statement is only one i.e. option
(c). There is no confusion that question has been asked to identify correct or incorrect statement.
Further The explanation given above by the University has not been reply by contested by the petitioners' experts. University to the petitioners' experts 37 Question No.186 in Set-A, 136 in Set -B, 86 in Set - C and 36 in Set-D (Hand written objections i.e. the objections raised on 19.6.2015 after seeing the Question Booklet) Contents of The lower Jaw in mammals is made up of ?
the question a. Dentary b. Maxilla
c. Angular d. Mandible
Contention Lower Jaw is called Mandible and not Dentary
of the
petitioner
Explanation The correct option is option (a) i.e. Dentary. The vertebrate skull by the in general and the mammal skull in particular is a complex University amalgam of bones, not just one or two but about 34 bones, if they all are present, make up the skull and lower jaw. Most of these bones are now fused together though anyone who has looked carefully at a mammal skull will have noticed the crinkly lines where the once individual bones meet. Most of them come in pairs, one each side. The skull can be divided into 3 basic parts ; the Braincase (enclosing the brain) ; the Rostrum (the snout and upper jaw) ; the Lower Jaw.
Some of the main bones of the skull are:
Nasal bones - the roof of the nasal cavity.
Maxillary bones - the main bones of the upper jaw, including the Zygomatic Arch; the bones to which the strong jaw muscles are attached and which form the boundaries of the eyes. The Zygomatic Arches also contain the Jugal bones and the Squamosal bones.
Frontal bones - the top of the skull in most mammals. These are the bones that horns and antlers grow from.
Parietal bones - these form the roof and back of the Braincase.
Occipital bones - the lower back of the Braincase (actually 3 VINOD KUMAR CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 117 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh bones fused together, basiocciptial, exoccipitals and supraoccipital) Dentary bones - the lower Jaw.
Lower Jaw in mammals is known as Mandible. Among human beings, it has other articulations like Coronoid process and Condyle etc. Whole of the Mandible is not covered with Teeth. It has also numerous muscles attached to it, which are used in mastication.
Question asked is "Lower Jaw in mammals is made up of", only Dentary which is totally occupied by the Teeth, whereas Mandible has teeth and other structures also.
Although human being is also a mammal, but Lower Jaw in human beings is different than Dentary and Dentary is part of Mandible among the human beings.
Further The explanation given above by the University has not been reply by contested by the petitioners' experts. University to the petitioners' experts
38 Question No.189 in Set-A, 139 in Set -B, 89 in Set - C and 39 in Set - D (Hand written objections i.e. the objections raised on 19.6.2015 after seeing the Question Booklet) Contents of Which of the following nerves is purely motor nerve ?
the Question a. Vagus b. Facial
c. Abducent d. Trigeminal
Contention Abducent spelling
of the
Petitioner
Explanation The petitioner has objected to the spelling of "Abducent". It may by the be clarified that Abducent nerve is also known as "Abducens" University Nerve. It is sixth cranial nerve and is a motor nerve, which controls the movements of lateral rectus muscle of the eye. The petitioner contended that Facial is correct answer i.e. option (b), which of course has motor component to the muscles of face, but its sensory component conveys the care sensation from the anterior 2/3rd of the tongue and the oral cavity, which means it is a mixed nerve.
The other two options (a) and (d) are typical mixed nerves.
Further The explanation given above by the University has not been reply by contested by the petitioners' experts.
University to
the
VINOD KUMAR
CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 118 )
2015.09.01 14:21
I attest to the accuracy and
authenticity of this document
Chandigarh
petitioners'
experts
39 Question No.33 of Set-A, No.183 of Set-B, 133 of Set-C and 83 of Set-D Contents of Satellites orbiting the earth have finite life and sometimes debris Question of satellites fall to the earth. This is because:
(a) the solar cells and batteries in satellites run out
(b) the laws of gravitation predict a trajectory spiraling inwards
(c) of viscous forces causing the speed of satellite and hence height to gradually decrease
(d) of collisions with other satellites.
Contention This question was not earlier challenged by the petitioners. But of the now the petitioners have alleged that option (c) is correct, stating petitioner that "It is because when in the orbit of the satellite viscous forces are existing, they decrease the speed of the satellite. With decrease of the speed, height of satellite also decreases." Reply by the It is elaborated that the satellites orbiting the earth have finite University to time period as well as definite path around the earth due to the centripetal force of attraction between earth and satellite, but petitioners' due to collisions with other satellites, their path become curved experts and they will fall to the earth due to gravity. Therefore, option
(d) is the correct option.
Further, in the Michelson-Morley experiment there is no viscous medium (or viscous force) surrounding the earth. Therefore, option (c), as claimed by the petitioners, is not correct.
40 Question No.34 of Set-A, No.184 of Set-B, 134 of Set-C and 84 of Set-D Contents of The maximum load a wire can withstand without breaking, when Question its length is reduced to half of its original length, will
(a) be double
(b) be half
(c) be four times
(d) remain same Contention This question was not earlier challenged by the petitioners. But of the now the petitioners have alleged that option (d) is correct by petitioners stating certain equations.
Reply by the The maximum load a wire can withstand without breaking, University to without changing its area of cross-section, is inversely the proportional to the length of a wire. So, by changing the length petitioners' to half of its original length, the maximum load will become half. experts So, correct option is option (a).
Further, it may be mentioned that by changing the length as well as by changing the area of cross-section of the wire, the maximum load a wire can withstand without breaking will be VINOD KUMAR CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 119 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh proportional to the area of cross-section. So, option (d) is not correct because the area of cross-section is not mentioned. It would be correct only if both the length and the area of cross- section of a wire are changed.
41 Question No.35 of Set-A, No.185 of Set-B, 135 of Set-C and 85 of Set-D Contents of An ideal fluid flows through a pipe of circular cross section Question made of two sections with diameters 2.5 cm and 3.75 cm. The ratio of the velocities in the two pipes is :
(a) 9 : 4
(b) 3 : 2
(c) 3 : 2
(d) 2 : 3 Contention This question was not earlier challenged by the petitioners. But of the now the petitioners have alleged that option (a) is correct by petitioner projecting certain equations.
Reply by the The velocity of the fluid which flows through a pipe is inversely University to proportional to the diameter of the pipe, which implies that the option (b) i.e. 3 : 2 is correct.
petitioners'
experts V1 = velocity of fluid A
V2 = velocity of fluid B
D1 = Diameter of pipe for flow of fluid A = 2.50 cm D2 = Diameter of pipe for flow of fluid B = 3.75 cm V1 /V2 = D2 /D1 Therefore, V1 : V2 = D2 : D1 = 3:2 i.e. option (b) is correct.
Option (a) is not correct, as the petitioners have taken 'a' as area in the equations projected by them. However, 'a' is not area but area of cross-section of pipe. There is a wide difference between 'area' and 'area of cross-section' of the pipe. In the calculations given above by the University, area has been taken as area of cross-section of the pipe.
Sd/- Sd/- Sd/-
(Dr. Navdeep Shekhar) (Dr. Kamaljit Kaur) (Dr. D.S.Sidhu)
REGISTRAR
Sd/- Sd/- Baba Farid University of
(Dr. Raman Mahajan) (Mr. Harjit Singh) Health Sciences, Faridkot."
VINOD KUMAR
CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 120 )
2015.09.01 14:21
I attest to the accuracy and
authenticity of this document
Chandigarh
On the basis of the pleadings, the petitioners in all the three petitions have made the following prayers:-
First Petition "i) a writ, order or direction especially in the nature of certiorari/mandamus directing the respondents to produce the entire procedure/steps taken for the conduct of the PMET Examination and after the perusal of the same, on the grounds interalia mentioned in the writ petition, the test conducted on 17.05.2015 being completely held in an unfair, arbitrary manner and the said test be cancelled and the steps with regard to the said test, be set-aside and further to direct the respondent-University to conduct the said test afresh or in the alternative to get the test be conducted through independent agency/institution.
ii) A writ in the nature of mandamus directing the respondent to supply the question papers to the petitioners.
iii) A writ in the nature of mandamus directing the respondent to upload the answer key of the Pre Medical Entrance Test conducted on 17.05.2015 by the respondent's University.
iv) A writ in the nature of mandamus directing the respondent to upload the OMR sheets of the petitioners on the web-site of the University.
v) A writ in the nature of prohibition restraining the respondent-University for proceeding further and/or admitting the students on the basis of PMET test held on 17.05.2015 conducted by the respondent- University.
vi) A writ in the nature of certiorari to quash the sub para-
11 of the head-7 "Conduct of the test" of the prospectus of PMET for the year 2015, as the same is VINOD KUMAR CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 121 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh in violation of the law laid down by the Hon'ble Court, prohibits the candidates from taking the questions booklet from the examination hall."
Second Petition "i) A writ, order or direction especially in the nature of certiorari/mandamus directing the respondents to produce the entire procedure/steps taken for the conduct of the PMET Examination and after the perusal of the same, on the grounds interalia mentioned in the writ petition, the test conducted on 17.05.2015 being completely held in an unfair, arbitrary manner and the said test be cancelled and the steps with regard to the said test, be set aside and further to direct the respondent-University to conduct the said test afresh or in the alternative to get the test be conducted through independent agency/institution.
ii) A writ in the nature of mandamus directing the respondent to supply the question papers to the petitioner.
iii) A writ in the nature of mandamus directing the respondent to upload the answer key of the Pre Medical Entrance Test conducted on 17.05.2015 by the respondent's University.
iv) A writ in the nature of mandamus directing the respondent to upload the OMR sheets of the petitioner on the web-site of the University.
v) A writ in the nature of prohibition restraining the respondent-University for proceeding further and/or admitting the students on the basis of PMET test held on 17.05.2015 conducted by the respondent- University,
vi) A writ in the nature of certiorari to quash the sub para-
11 of the head-7 "Conduct of the test" of the prospectus of PMET for the year 2015, as the same is VINOD KUMAR CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 122 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh in violation of the law laid down by the Hon'ble Court, prohibits the candidates from taking the questions booklet from the examination hall."
Third Petition "i) issue writ of mandamus directing the respondent to constitute a committee of independent experts to ascertain the correct answer key of the Pre Medical Entrance Test (PMET) conducted on 17.05.2015;
ii) Direct the respondent to upload the question paper and answer key of the Pre Medical Entrance Test (PMET) conducted on 17.05.2015;
iii) Direct the respondent to upload OMR sheets of the petitioners on the website of the University;"
Thus, from the aforesaid pleadings and prayers made in all the three writ petitions, the following questions emerge for adjudication:-
1. Whether the PMET-2015, held on 17.05.2015, is liable to be cancelled and re-conducted on the basis of mere allegations leveled by the petitioners of mismanagement, favourtism, impersonation and cheating?
2. Whether the petitioners were entitled to carry their question booklet(s) with them after the examination was over and Clause 7(11) of the prospectus is liable to be struck down being arbitrary and unreasonable and the University is obliged to upload the answer keys and OMR sheets of the candidates on its website?
3. Whether the expert report tendered by the petitioners about the disputed questions should be accepted as against the expert report of the University or the matter should be VINOD KUMAR CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 123 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh referred to a third agency for another expert opinion at this stage?
In respect of first question, counsel for the petitioners have mainly relied upon the following allegations contained in the pleadings, though without any evidence, which are reproduced as under:-
"Firstly, some of the petitioners, namely, Trishika Verma, Bhavika, Apoorva Sharma, Sargun Kaur etc. were facing a lot of problem for approaching to the centre of the examination because approximately 3-5 Kms. they have to walk upto the entry grate of the Lovely Professional University. Moreover this, there was traffic jam was such a long, No. of students have to walk nearly about 5 Kms. for reaching at the centre, they have also face to the warm weather in the month of May.
Secondly, there was a great surprise for the students, when they reached at the examination centre, initially at 8.00 AM, time was start and question papers were given to the students for some time and thereafter, the said question papers were taken back, asking them to wait for some time. It is submitted here that this clearly looses the secrecy and it clearly handle to many students to see the questions paper, and thereafter consult about the answer of the questions before again starting of the examination. Many of the Invigilators carrying out their mobiles and thus the secrecy and transparency of the said important examination was completely disturbed.
Thirdly, in comparison to the petitioners who traveled first by vehicles for approximately 150 to 200 Kms. and thereafter they have to walk for 3-5 Kms. for reaching at the centre at 11.00 AM but in comparison to accommodate to certain VIPs and other favourtees candidates examination was not started VINOD KUMAR CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 124 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh at 11.00 AM. There was no lawful reason for the delay in the examination but to favour the certain candidates. Fourthly, it is submitted that it is a matter of fact that the said examination was started from 11.45 AM instead of 11.00 AM.
Fifthly, it is a matter of fact that in many examination halls, instead of having the independent Table and Chair for each student for giving the said test, there was a long Table and desk on which two to four students were sitting together without sufficient gap between them and some of the examination Halls, students were sitting in such type that their shoulders were rubbishing to each other, which clearly looses the secrecy of the said examination. Sixthly, petitioners have craves for kind indulgence of this Hon'ble Court that and praying to this Hon'ble Court to summon the whole record of the above mentioned examination, which would clearly demonstrate the various discrepancies, irregularities and illegalities etc. It is submitted that full responsibility that if the attendance register/sheets are summoned with signatures of the students, which would show that no steps have been taken by the respondent-University to avoid the cheating in such an important examination, rather such steps have been taken to facilitate the students to cheat and take away the sanctity of the competitive examinations. It is further submitted that the non principle practice prevalent is followed in number of the examination halls, because if there are 20 students with their Roll Nos.1 to 20, the OMR sheets/question papers which were given to the students are given to the same type of papers, which would help the students to ask each other. To further illustrate, it is submitted that suppose out of 20 students 1st student is given the question paper of Set-A, Second to Set-B, Third to Set-C, 4th to Set-D but they were sitting in such type that they can ask the answer of the VINOD KUMAR CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 125 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh question from each other, therefore, there was no secrecy in the said examination. Moreover this, in the present examination no such procedure was followed, which would maintain the secrecy and unfair means, therefore, it can be said no proper sitting plan was maintained by the supervisors of the said examination."
"a) That the time fixed for start of the exam was fixed at 11 AM according to the prospectus for PMET issued by the BFUHS. However, the exam was commenced 45 minutes late to accommodate the wards of some VIP's. Some students entered the examination hall at 11.45 AM. Some VIP students were given the paper at 11 AM so that they can copy the answers.
b) That there was widespread cheating during the exam.
Mobiles were not allowed in the examination hall but the invigilators could be seen talking on their mobile phones. The students were herded like cattle and were sitting close by to facilitate cheating.
c) That the exam was conducted in a most unprofessional manner. A single center at Lovely Professional University in Jalandhar was chosen where about 15000 candidates appeared for the PMET exam. There was chaos everywhere as there was a huge rush of people. Some 350 students were not able to appear in the exam due to traffic snarls and the resulting chaos. The mismanagement and the chaos at the examination center was widely reported in the newspapers, the next day."
The following reply has been given by the University:-
"2. That the sequence of facts regarding PMET-2015 is detailed as under:-
a) The Punjab Government issued Notification No.5/35/2014-5HB-III/559 dated 30.03.2015 regarding VINOD KUMAR CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 126 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh admissions to MBBS/BDS courses in Medical and Dental Institutes in the State of Punjab for the session 2015. Vide clause 2 of the said notification, the respondent University was authorized to conduct the Punjab Medical Entrance Test (PMET-2015). The complete text of the notification is given in the Prospectus of PMET-2015 published by the University.
b) To implement the said notification, online applications were invited by the University from the aspirants for the admission to the MBBS/BDS course, for the admission session 2015, from 07.04.2015 upto 29.04.2015 (without late fee) and upto 04.05.2015 with late fee. The last date for deposit of application fee was 07.05.2015. A soft copy of the Prospectus of PMET-2015 was provided on the University website viz www.bfuhs.ac.in from 07.04.2015 onwards.
Candidates could also obtain a hard copy of the Prospectus from the University after paying Rs.200/-. A list or calendar of the "Important Dates" relating to PMET-2015 is given in the Prospectus, in a conspicuously visible tabulated form, at the very outset of the Prospectus after the cover page. The hard copy of the Prospectus will be shown to this Hon'ble Court at the time of hearing.
c) Admits Cards were issued from 11.05.2015 through the University website. A total of 15517 admits cards were issued. A copy of an Admit Card is illustratively attached as Annexure R-5. In addition to the Roll No. of the candidate, the date and time of the Test (17.05.2015 at 11:00 am to 2:00 pm) and the Centre Code, particulars relating to the candidate such as his/her name, address and category, and important instructions, the Admit Card also contained the VINOD KUMAR CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 127 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh following in bold type at the top:- "Explanation Venue List of examination centre and centre code will be published in The Tribune, Daily Ajit (Punjabi), Punjab Kesri of 14.05.2015 and on our web site www.bfuhs.ac.in".
d) Advertisement regarding the venue of PMET-2015 (Lovely Professional University, Jalandhar-Delhi G.T. Road, Phagwara) alongwith Centre Codes, besides the date and time of the entrance test (17.05.2015 from 11 am to 2 pm), was issued by the University and published in three leading newspapers viz The Tribune (English), the Daily Ajit (Punjabi) and the Punjab Kesri (Hindi) on 14.05.2015. A copy of the advertisement is attached as Annexure R-6. The same was also put up on the University website a day earlier, on 13.05.2015, alongwith a coloured map for the guidance of candidates (travelling to the examination venue) captioned "Directions to Reach LPU for PMT on 17.05.2015". A copy of the said map is attached as Annexure R-7. A perusal thereof would show that the approaches to the LPU Campus from the Jalandhar-Delhi G.T. Road, both from the Ludhiana/Phagwara side and the Jalandhar/Pathankot side as well as from Chandigarh/Nawanshahr, were indicated on the map with great lucidity with the help of clearly distinguishable coloured arrows and route- pointers. Also given on the website for the convenience of candidates was a coloured map delineating the lay-out of various blocks in the LPU Campus. It was specifically indicated by the University that "Blocks marked with red periphery are the only centres for PMET-2015". Accompanying the aforesaid advertisement and maps on the University website w.e.f 13.05.2015 were "Instructions to the VINOD KUMAR CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 128 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh candidates", a copy whereof is attached as Annexure R-8.
It may be added that the venue of the entrance test viz. Lovely Professional University was disclosed by the respondent University through the newspaper advertisement Annexure R-6 on 14.05.2015 (and on the University website on 13.05.2015), consistently with the practice in the University that the venue/centre of the PMET is disclosed only three days prior to the test in order to ensure the integrity of the examination and to prevent penetration by unscrupulous gangs/individuals, which or who become active on the eve of such competitive examinations and employ all means and resources, including modern electronic gadgets, to compromise the integrity of the examination for illicit gain. The respondent University was aware of the leakage of the All India Pre-Medical Test (AIPMT) at Rohtak on May 3, 2015.
e) Vide his letters dated 14.05.2015, the answering respondent wrote to the Deputy Commissioner, Kapurthala as well as the Senior Superintendent of Police, Kapurthala informing them that the University was going to conduct PMET-2015 at the Lovely Professional University on 17.05.2015 for which 15,000 candidates were expected, with a total estimated inflow of about 30,000 persons for the purpose. The DC and SSP were requested to make adequate arrangements for traffic control, etc. in the area of the examination centre, to and fro the Bus Stand and the Railway Station. They were also requested to secure all examination centres against intrusion and trespassing and to ensure that all persons entering the examination centres should be without electronic devices including cell phones or any other VINOD KUMAR CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 129 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh gadgets that may be misused during the examination. The Deputy Commissioner was also requested to instruct the Electricity Department for regular power supply, the Police for security arrangements/law and order, and the Transport Department for adequate transport arrangement for candidates coming from different areas. Copies of the said letters written to the DC and SSP are attached as Annexures R-9 and R-10 respectively. Both the said letters expressly pointed out that " medical entrance tests are highly sensitive and under grave risk of exploitation by unscrupulous elements who sell the same to the prospective candidates and each year such instance of paper leakage happen all across the country" and both the DC and SSP were requested to take all proper measures possible to prevent any untoward incident.
f) The answering respondent also wrote to the General Manager, PRTC, Kapurthala, informing him of the expected inflow of candidates and persons as stated above and requesting him to make necessary arrangements for transportation on 17.05.2015 to the city and local arrangements of transportation to the Lovely Professional University from 7 am onwards. A copy of the said letter dated 14.05.2015 is attached as Annexure R-11. A letter was also sent to the Chief Engineer, Punjab State Power Corporation Ltd., Kapurthala for making necessary arrangements so that uninterrupted supply to electricity be maintained during the conduct of the examination on 17.05.2015. A copy of the said letter dated 14.05.2015 is attached as Annexure R-12.
g) That earlier on 05.05.2015 the answering respondent had written to the Director General of Police, Punjab and the Additional Director General of Police VINOD KUMAR CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 130 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh (Intelligence), Punjab, informing them that PMET- 2015 was scheduled to be held on 17.05.2015. The letter stated that "There are organized gangs operating in the country to sabotage such like important tests. I have been authorized by the Hon'ble Vice Chancellor to request you that the Police Department through its intelligence should see that no unscrupulous element is able to disrupt this process. You are requested to help the University in your own subtle way, so that the University comes to the expectations of the State Government and general public and the test is conducted in a smooth and fair manner". Copies of the said letters addressed to the DGP and ADGP (Intelligence) are attached as Annexures R-13 and R- 14 respectively. Copies of the letter to the DGP were also sent to the Chief Secretary, Punjab, the Principal Secretary, Department of Home Affairs and the Principal Secretary, Department of Medical Education and Research, Punjab for information.
h) In addition to the invigilating staff including Centre Superintendents and Deputy Superintendents at each Centre appointed by the LPU under the instructions of the respondent-University (Annexure R-15), two Observers for each of the 62 Centres on the LPU Campus for the smooth, transparent and fair conduct of PMET-2015 were appointed by the University. A total to 124 Observers were appointed. The University also appointed fifteen Special Observers. A complete centre-wise list of the 15 Special Observers and 124 Observers is attached as Annexure R-16. A list of the Superintendents and Deputy Superintendents appointed by the LPU for each of the 62 centres is also attached as Annexure R-17. As can be seen therefrom, there was one Superintendent and two Deputy VINOD KUMAR CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 131 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh Superintendents assigned on duty at each of the 62 centres. The centre-wise list of invigilators appointed by the LPU is also attached as Annexure R-18.
i) That over 500 police personnel headed by the Senior Superintendent of Police, Kapurthala, assisted by two Superintendents of Police and three Deputy Superintendents of Police, were deployed by the State Government at the LPU Campus and on the Jalandhar- Delhi G.T. Road (NH-1) on 17.05.2015 in connection with PMET-2015.
j) PMET-2015 was conducted on Sunday, 17.05.2015 at the Lovely Professional University (at 62 centres therein) from 11:45 am to 2:45 pm, though the originally scheduled time was 11:00 am to 2:00 pm. In view of the Vice-Chancellor's decision to delay the commencement of the examination in the interest of the students, the distribution of the question paper as originally scheduled was deferred. The question paper was distributed by the invigilators at 11:40 am. By "distribution" is meant placing the stapled Question Booklet and blank OMR response sheet on each seat. The candidates were instructed by the invigilating staff to open the question paper at 11:45 am. The University had installed wall clocks in each room of all the 62 Centres, the candidates not being allowed to wear any watch. All the candidates were also provided black pens by the University and were not allowed to carry their own pens and pencils. Needless to add, they were not allowed to carry any mobile phones or any other electronic items like calculator, etc. The seating plan in all the 62 centres, in all the rooms therein, was such that no two candidates sitting horizontally next to each other in the same row, nor any two candidates sitting vertically behind or in front of each other, were given VINOD KUMAR CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 132 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh the same set of Question Booklet. The seating plan(s) for 19 of the 62 centres viz centre Nos. 101, 111, 115, 120, 124, 126, 129, 131, 137, 138, 140, 141, 142, 148, 151, 154, 157, 159 and 162 are illustratively attached as Annexure R-19(colly) for the kind perusal of this Hon'ble Court. Each seat had a Roll No. sticker rather than the Roll No. being written with chalk as is usually done. Not a single case of impersonation, cheating or use of unfair means was observed on 17.05.2015.
Overseeing all the arrangements and the conduct of PMET-2015, the Vice Chancellor of the Baba Farid University was personally present throughout at the LPU Campus on 17.05.2015, from 7:30am to about 6:30-6:45pm. The Registrar and Joint Registrar of the University, who had been camping at the LPU Campus since the previous day, accompanied the Vice Chancellor as he returned to the Baba Farid University at Faridkot, taking along with them the entire examination material, and reaching Faridkot at about 10:30pm on 17.05.2015.
k) The invigilating staff and the Observers were not allowed to use their personal mobile phones during the conduct of PMET-2015 on 17.05.2015 and their personal mobile phones were kept in the control room. The University had provided 65 special mobile phones with new numbers, having no cameras in the mobile sets including one for each of the 62 centres (to be used by either of the two Observers assigned to each centre) and two for the control room. A centre-wise list of these mobile phone numbers is attached as Annexure R-20. These mobile phones were given in the very morning of Sunday, 17.05.2015, i.e. on the day of the entrance test itself.
VINOD KUMARCWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 133 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh
l) Videography of each candidate appearing in PMET-
2015 on 17.05.2015 was also done at each of the 62 centres. A total of 62 videographers were hired for the purpose. 10 photographers were also hired for still photography. A centre-wise list of these 72 persons (62 videographers and 10 photographers) is attached as Annexure R-21.
m) The allegations in the writ petition that PMET-2015 was conducted "in a clandestine manner to hide its incompetency" and/or that it was conducted "in a most arbitrary, mala fide and unfair manner" and/or that the "secrecy and transparency of the said important examination was completely disturbed" and/or that "there was widespread cheating" during the test and/or that "on steps have been taken by the respondent University to avoid the cheating in such an important examination, rather such steps have been taken to facilitate the students to cheat and take away the sanctity of the competitive examinations" and/or that "some VIP students were given the paper at 11am so that they can copy the answers" and/or "no proper sitting plan was maintained by the supervisors of the said examination" and/or that the students "were herded like cattle and were sitting close by to facilitate cheating" and/or that the "students were sitting in such type that their shoulders were rubbishing(sic) to each other" and/or that they were "sitting in such type that they can ask the answer of the question from each other" are a complete and blatant untruth, irresponsible and rackless in the extreme, with not an iota of factual warrant or justification in any of the allegations. The enormity of the allegations made and blithely repeated in the writ petition is truly Geobbelsian.
VINOD KUMARCWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 134 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh It is submitted and affirmed with complete responsibility that the entrance test was organized and conducted in absolute good faith and that the conduct of the PMET-2015 on 17.05.2015 was marked by complete fairness and transparency. It cannot be overemphasized that the integrity of the examination was fully secured and maintained. It is reiterated that there was not a single case of cheating, impersonation or use of unfair means, the seating plan being such that no two candidates sitting horizontally next to each other or vertically behind or in front of each other were given the same set of Question Booklet at any of the 62 centres and/or in any room in any centre. There were more than adequate sitting space at all the 62 centres on the LPU Campus (which was one of the important reasons why it was selected as the venue of PMET-2015), with sufficient distance between the examinees in all the rooms, both horizontally and vertically. Each seat had a Roll No. sticker rather than the Roll No. being written with chalk as in customarily done. All requisite qualitative and quantitative norms and parameters in the conduct of the entrance test, and its invigilators and supervision, were maintained and adhered to.
n) That the process of evaluation of the OMR response sheets was started at 8 am on 18.05.2015 and the result of PMET-2015 was declared by the University on 18.05.2015 itself. A copy of the proceedings of the Committee constituted to supervise the procedure of opening the sealed OMR response sheet packets, scanning of OMR sheets and process of preparation of the result of PMET-2015, headed by the Registrar, is attached as Annexure R-22.
VINOD KUMARCWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 135 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh
3. That the paramount and overarching objective of the respondent-Baba Farid University's decision to hold PMET- 2015 at a single venue was to ensure the integrity of the entrance test. Holding the test at a single venue instead of at multiple venues as in the past would ensure effective control and monitoring by the respondent University and serve to prevent penetration of the examination by unscrupulous agencies/gangs/individuals who work overtime to compromise the integrity of examinations for illicit gain. The effectiveness of the University's control and monitoring would be greatly diluted in case the entrance test, involving over 15,000 candidates, was to be scattered over multiple centres.
The allegation in the writ petition that the LPU, Jalandhar was selected for conducting PMET-2015 for "unfair and corrupt practice to favour certain candidates and to disfavor the general public" is not only blatantly false and scurrilous but literally stands the truth on its head.
In view of the huge infrastructure available on the LPU Campus, perhaps unparalleled in the State of Punjab, and because of its being centrally located in the State, near Jalandhar on the G.T. Road (NH-1), the Loverly Professional University was selected by the Baba Farid University to host PMET-2015. The LPU has 58 blocks, of which 20 blocks are Academic Blocks i.e. blocks which have classrooms and can be used as examination halls. The total seating capacity of these 20 Academic Blocks is 41,170 students. The total number of candidates who had applied for PMET-2015 were 15,517 (about 38% of the aforesaid seating capacity on the LPU Campus). Out of these 15517 applicants, 15152 candidates took the entrance test on 17.05.2015. A detailed picture of the Academic Block, the blocks and number of rooms used for PMET-2015, the distribution of examination VINOD KUMAR CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 136 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh halls, the total seating capacity, room description, etc. is given in Annexure R-23 in Table Nos. 1 to 7 therein.
The parking space available at the LPU Campus is also enormous. The Campus has multiple parking venues which can accommodate as many as 15,000 four-wheelers and 2,000 two wheelers. Details of these eleven venues and their respective capacities are given in Annexure R-23 in Table No.9 therein. Some photographers of the parking space(s) on the LPU Campus are attached as Annexure R-24(colly).
The LPU also ran a shuttle bus service on 17.05.2015 to ferry candidates from the parking venues to their examination centre(s). Sixteen buses and four other vehicles were used for the purpose. The registration nos. of the buses and other vehicles are listed in Table No.8 in Annexure R-23.
Taking a holistic view, therefore, it would not be realistic, prudent on fair to question the respondent- University's decision to hold PMET-2015 at the LPU Campus. It is important to add that the LPU has not charged the Baba Farid University, and the University has not paid LPU, a single penny for hosting PMET-2015.
It may not be out of place here to mention that the Vice Chancellor of the University of Cambridge, Professor Sir Leszek Borysiewicz was the chief guest at the LPU's second annual convocation in September 2012. The President of India, Sh. Pranab Mukherjee was the chief guest at the third annual convocation in May 2013, when the President of Afghanistan, Mr. Hamid Karzai was awarded an honorary degree. The fourth annual convocation in April 2015 saw the President of Mauritius as the chief guest.
4. That the issue of delay of 45 minutes in the commencement of PMET-2015 (11:45 am instead of 11 am as originally scheduled) on 17.05.2015, owing to the unexpected traffic congestion on the Jalandhar-Delhi G.T. Road (NH-1) where the LPU is located, has been addressed in the following Press VINOD KUMAR CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 137 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh Note issued by the Vice Chancellor, Baba Farid University on 17.05.2015, giving a detailed first-hand account of the true factual situation.
"The Baba Farid University of Health Sciences has conducted for the first time examination at one centre so that it could be monitored and controlled well. There is no other central place in the state where in a single premises about 15000 students could be examined at one time. BFUHS has the experience of conducting such exam of a smaller magnitude at LPU which is the only premises in the centre of the state which could accommodate 15000 students along with 10000 vehicles. As many as 15517 candidates applied and 15152 appeared in the examination. This is first time such a high number of students has appeared in the examination at a single institution in the center of the state. LPU being on the G.T. road, we expected traffic problems but appreciating the infrastructure and capabilities of LPU, BFUHS did not have even an iota of doubt that it would be an uncomfortable place for the candidates. All the rooms of examination centres were air conditioned and studded with cameras. Students did not have any difficulty for appearing in the examination. Enormous number of parents were accommodated in air conditioned auditorium and other venue. Efforts of around 3000 persons both from BFUHS and LPU could make this mega event of the Baba Farid University of Health Sciences, successful.
At 10.49 am most of the students had entered the examination centres. There was information that an army convoy was passing on G.T. Road which was obstructing the flow of the traffic. I was at the main gate of LPU along with my team and senior Police Officers and security forces and we took a decision VINOD KUMAR CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 138 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh that we should see the traffic flow on both sides i.e. on Jalandhar as well as on Phagwara side that there was no blockage. There was no obstruction at the entry gate to LPU. I escorted by PCR traveled 5 kms. on either side to ensure that no student is stuck in any form on the road. Now I after getting satisfied, I informed the Secretary, Medical Education & Research that I am going to delay the exam for few minutes as this action is being taken in larger interest of the student community and we wanted that no candidate should be deprived to appear in the examination. After taking around of all the block and centres and ensuring all the students entered in the examination. When it was clocked on 11:20 am, I was at the control room to give instructions for starting the examinations.
Possibilities were to start the exam at 11:30 am or 11:45 am or 12:00 noon. To start at 11:30 am there were only 10 minutes in hand which would have defeated the purpose if we could not have conveyed the information to all the observers of respective centres which were 62 in numbers. This information need to be transmitted from me to the Registrar to observers, then to Centre Superintendent and eventually to invigilators. It would have certainly taken more than 10 minutes, on the other hand at 12:00 noon, clock could have been little late so a middle path was selected that was at 11:45 am to start the examination. The information was sent to each centre to give the question paper and OMR sheet at 11:40 am and the instruction to open the question paper and starting and writing on OMR sheet should happen at 11:45 am and to complete the examination (after exactly 3 hrs from the time of commencement).VINOD KUMAR
CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 139 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh There was resentment among the parents that why the examination was started late. I personally explained to them. They were worried that students/candidates must be upset because of delay. They suggested that they wish to see their wards in the centres. Two representatives of the crowd were taken to 3 to 4 centres where they found that the examination was going smoothly and were satisfied. We asked them to satisfy the rest of the crowd of parents. It was surprising that one female student even came at 01:30 pm to appear in the examination to whom we denied as by that time half of the examination time was over.
Sd/- 17.05.2015 Vice Chancellor Baba Farid University of Health Sciences, Faridkot."
The aforecited press note would nail the complete lie of the petitioners' allegations that the entrance test was delayed in order to "accommodate certain VIPs and other favorites" and/or "to accommodate the wards of some VIPs"
and/or that "there was no lawful reason for the delay in the examination but to favour certain candidates". These completely unfounded, irresponsible and reckless allegations are of a piece with the general tone and tenor of the writ petition. The allegation that "some VIP students were given the paper at 11am so that they can copy the answers" is also a blatant falsehood. In view of the Vice-Chancellor's decision to delay the commencement of the examination in the interest of the students, the distribution of the question paper as originally scheduled was deferred. The question paper was distributed at 11:40 am, by which is meant that the stapled Question Booklet and blank OMR response sheet was placed on each seat at 11:40 am. The candidates were instructed by the Invigilating Staff to open the question paper at 11:45 am. The Vice Chancellor's press note also states specifically that VINOD KUMAR CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 140 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh "The information was sent to each centre to give the question paper and OMR sheet at 11:40 am and the instruction to open the question paper and starting and writing on OMR sheet should happen at 11:45 am".
It may be added that the allegation in the writ petition that "importantly, it is also to mention here that about 350 candidates could not appear in the said PMET test, as they could not reach at the centre due to various heavy jams and heavy traffic rush due to only one centre" directly contradicts the other allegations in the writ petition that the entrance test was delayed in order to accommodate certain VIPs/wards of VIPs and other favourites.
That since the writ petition alludes to news reports about PMET-2015, albeit generally and without specifying any particular news reports, reference in the above context may also be made to some leading news report attached as Annexure R-25(colly) viz. "Govt backs Baba Farid varsity's one-centre norm" (The Tribune, May 19,2015), "No paper leak, exam delayed to let students arrive, says VC" (The Tribune, May 18,2015), "PMET rush leads to chaos at varsity" (The Times of India, May 18, 2015) and "Punjab PMET result out, Rajpura girl tops" (The Hindustan Times, May 20, 2015). Detailed reference to the said news reports will be made at time of hearing."
It is pertinent to mention here that the petitioners, in all the petitions, are those who had appeared in the examination and none of them was deprived of his appearance because of the traffic congestion, chaos etc. It was in fact a herculean task, executed by the University with precision, inasmuch as the Vice Chancellor himself played a pivotal role to ensure that this examination, held after the AIPMT-2015 on 03.05.2015, may not be involved in controversy of mass cheating and use of unfair means.
VINOD KUMARCWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 141 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh It may be noticed that the facts of the case of Tanvi Sarwal vs. Central Board of Secondary Education and Ors., Writ Petition (Civil) No.298/2015, decided on 15.06.2015, were altogether different. That was a case in which, for the first time, the Supreme Court had ordered re-examination of the All India Pre-Medical and Pre-Dental Entrance Test-2015 (AIPMT-2015) as it was found to have been vitiated by the use of unfair means and malpractices through electronic gadgets and devices facilitating the students illegal and unfair access to 90 answer keys during the examination at the behest of the syndicate for unlawful gain. In that case, the Supreme Court has extensively referred to the status reports dated 20.05.2015, 25.05.2015, 02.06.2015 and 11.06.2015 submitted by the Investigating Agency so as to mark the progress in the inquisition, facts unearthed, arrests made and also the extent of identification of the beneficiaries arrested by the police till that date. The salient features of the excerpts of the aforesaid status reports, noticed by the Supreme Court in that judgment, are as follows:-
"(a) On verification of the identity of the other occupants of the car those were disclosed to be Rajesh S/o Shri Umed Singh and Ravi S/o Shri Gorakh Singh, a student of MBBS from PGI, Rohtak.
(b) On frisking Ravi, a carton containing three vests of gents and three vests of ladies were found to be tagged with micro SIM.
(c) Similarly five Bluetooth devices were discovered from the possession of Sanjeet, a doctor.
(d) One wrist watch consisting spy camera including data cables was recovered from the possession of Rajesh.
(e) The arrested accused persons made disclosures indicating that a meeting was organized by one Roop Singh Dangi S/o Ram Pal at his house at Omax City, VINOD KUMAR CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 142 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh Rohtak in which it was decided that Rs.20 lakh each would be taken from the candidates to help them for qualifying in the examination and that the person who would be able to bring such candidates would be awarded 1/3 of the amount collected.
(f) It was disclosed as well that Roop Singh Dangi had leaked the question paper from Behror (Dist. Alwar, Rajasthan) and after arranging the answer key provided it to Dr. Bhupender, Ravi, Sanjeet and Rajesh at their mobile phones, to be transmitted to the beneficiaries in course of the examination.
(g) It was further disclosed that to actuate this plan one Shri Subhash Shrivastav, who runs an electronic gadgets shop in Patel Nagar, New Delhi in the name of "SPY SHOP", was contacted and after revealing to him the plan he was requested to supply undergarments of gents and ladies in which SIM devices etc. can be fixed to, which the shop owner agreed, at four times the normal price of the garments.
(h) On 02.05.2015, Roop Singh Dangi and the co-accused Sunny S/o Ranbir Singh booked four rooms on the ID of Sunny in Shakti Resort, Behror, District Alwar, Rajasthan where, Roop Singh Dangi was present along with master solvers. Private cars and buses were used by Roop Singh Dangi to transport the master solvers/beneficiaries from various places to Behror.
(i) Roop Singh Dangi and co-accused namely Krishan, Sunny Dahiya etc. had telephoned several people in the cities of Bihar, Jharkhand, Uttar Pradesh, Rajasthan, Delhi, Maharashtra, Orissa and Haryana from several SIM cards from Behror.
(j) Out of 123 solved answers of code "G" found in the mobile set of the arrested accused Dr. Bhupender, 102 answers were correct when compared with the answer VINOD KUMAR CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 143 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh key provided by the CBSE on their official website.
Similarly, 42 answers were found correct out of 50 solved answer key of Code 'F' delivered by the accused.
(k) Ravi was found involved in a similar malpractice pertaining to All India PG Medical Entrance Examination, 2012 and also relating to State Bank of India Competition Examination by using electronic gadgets/devices.
(l) About 358 mobile numbers have been used, for receiving answer keys of unfairly solved question papers of the examination to be transmitted to various mobile phones across the country where the examination was underway.
(m) Information was received from CBSE with regard to 29 candidates involved in malpractices in the examination out of whom 21 had been found to be using the electronic devices concealed in their undergarments.
(n) 18 such candidates whose names had been disclosed in the status report were caught in course of the examination with electronic devices in their vests.
(o) Two arrested candidates namely Nanha Kumar S/o Shri Meena Parsad and Sujit S/o Shri Dud Nath who had also taken the examination and from whom vests fixed with micro SIM devices together with ear devices, charger and two mobile phones of dual SIMs were recovered, disclosed that all these have been provided to them by one Vijay Yadav, student of MBBS of 1st year in Banaras Hindu University, Uttar Pradesh.
(p) These candidates further disclosed that Vijay Yadav and Rahul Verma have been able to qualify AIPMT, 2014 examination by using the same modus operandi.
VINOD KUMARCWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 144 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh
(q) These candidates admitted to have received the answer key during the examination though the three electronic devices which were supplied by Vijay Yadav and that with the help of the answer key they had solved the question paper.
(r) Vijay Yadav on his arrest did disclose, that he used to prepare for AIPMT examination along with Rahul Verma and that they were able to successfully qualify in AIPMT-2014 by using the same modus operandi.
He admitted that he along with Rahul Verma did contact Veer Bahadur for AIPMT, 2015 and planned to charge Rs.17 lakhs from each candidate to enable them to qualify in the examination. He admitted further to have provided vests fitted with electronic devices to the candidates Nanha Kumar, Surjit and others.
He also admitted to have visited Shakti Resort, Behror, Rajasthan on 02/03.05.2015 and had participated in the meeting where Roop Singh Dangi and Veer Bahadur were present who provided new mobile phones and SIM cards to the persons concerned with the understanding that Roop Singh would leak the AIPMT question paper and supply the answer key with the help of master solvers.
(s) Till date 44 candidates have been found to be confirmed beneficiaries in the scheme who have been supplied with answer keys during the examination through electronic devices installed in their vests.
(t) Out of 358 suspected mobile numbers of the beneficiaries, 44 have been found to be registered on fake identities, 166 are registered on genuine basis and verification with regard to the remaining 148 mobile numbers is under process.
VINOD KUMARCWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 145 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh The names and details of these 45 beneficiaries have been furnished in the status report dated 01.06.2015."
Thus, on the basis of the aforesaid facts and circumstances, the Supreme Court ordered re-examination.
The question thus would be as to whether there is any evidence led by the petitioners to substantiate their allegations made in the petition which are otherwise strongly challenged and refuted by the University, supported by documentary evidence, in regard to arrangements made for conducting the exam.
The answer is obviously in negative as this Court is fully satisfied with the exhaustive averments, supported by documentary evidence, made in the reply furnished by the University.
There is another interesting feature that the second petition is more or less the copy of the first petition but as regards the third petition, which has been filed by not less than 10 petitioners, it does not contain all the aforesaid allegations, made by the petitioners in first and second petitions, though they were also the examinees who had appeared in the same examination and at the same venue.
Hence, in view of the aforesaid facts and circumstances, the examination cannot be ordered to be re-conducted, on the mere ipsi dixit of the petitioners, otherwise the Court would tread on a dangerous path in case the examination of such a magnitude and importance is ordered to be cancelled only on the basis of mere allegations.
The first question is decided accordingly.
VINOD KUMARCWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 146 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh Insofar as the second question is concerned, the petitioners have challenged the validity of Clause 7(11) of the prospectus under the heading of "Conduct of the Test" which provides that "no candidate, without the special permission of the Centre Superintendent or the Invigilator concerned, will leave his/her seat or the Examination Room until the expiry of full time allotted for test. Candidates should not leave the Hall without handing over their Question Booklets and the OMR Response Sheets to the Invigilator on duty".
The grievance of the petitioners is that the prohibition of not leaving the examination hall without handing over the question booklet, imposed by the University, is unreasonable, arbitrary and whimsical.
As a matter of fact, prayer clauses (ii), (iii), (iv) and (vi) in the first and second petitions and (ii) and (iii) in the third petition are on this issue only as to whether the petitioners are entitled to carry their question booklets after the examination is over and the answer key/OMR response sheets are liable to be published on the website of the University.
The University has contested this aspect tooth and nail while referring to the examination being held by the AIIMS, New Delhi, the PGIMER, Chandigarh and the JIPMER, Puducherry. It is submitted that since the aforesaid leading and prestigious institutes in the field of medicines are not allowing the candidates to take away their question booklet after the examination and also follow the policy of non-disclosure of the answer key and OMR response sheets, therefore, the University is also following their policy of non-disclosure or non-supply of question booklets, answer keys and OMR response sheets in order to maintain sanctity of the PMET examination. It is also sought to be argued that the stock of questions for PMET students, who had only passed their 10+2, is limited as against the entrance examination for VINOD KUMAR CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 147 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh postgraduate courses like MS/MD/DM/M.Ch where the syllabus of the subject-
matter keeps on deepening and expanding and there is no limit to the stock of the questions because at the super-specialty level, the subject matter does not remain contained in the text books but extends to specialized journals. It is also the hunch of the University that the disclosure and supply of question papers at this stage would promote and facilitate the private coaching centres which only teach the students the exemplars and do not inculcate the habit of deep studies.
It is argued by the counsel for the University that the pattern, style and type of questions being asked in such entrance test having limited stock may not be known to the aspiring future candidates who would, by using their good memory, memorize previous years questions and are selected rather than one with analytical mind and it would further be a set back to the paper setter as his intellect pool/question bank would be utilized by the coaching institutes.
Counsel for the petitioners have submitted that in the present case, the University has shown the question paper to two students during the course of hearing and had also placed on record the answer key with the reply and has also averred in their reply that the OMR response sheets of 247 candidates have already been re-checked and whosoever amongst the petitioners want to see it now, they may be shown their OMR response sheets, subject to payment of fee prescribed for re-checking. It is submitted that in this age of information, where the Right to Information Act, 2005 was enacted ten years ago, the University cannot keep the information about the question paper, answer key and OMR response sheet of the students, appearing in the exam, as a secret document.
In response to the argument that the prestigious institutions like AIIMS, New Delhi, PIGMER, Chandigarh and the JIPMER, Puducherry are not allowing disclosure of the questions papers, it is argued that the PMET-2015 has VINOD KUMAR CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 148 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh been taken by 15152 students, whereas the AIPMT-2015, conducted by the CBSE, is taken by more than 6 lacs students in which the syllabus is same and in that examination, the students are allowed to take away their question booklets, which has already been attached as Annexure P-2 with the writ petition as an example.
It is also submitted that the CBSE had issued notification on 18.05.2015, which is also a part of the record, that the candidates can check the answer key prepared by the CBSE and the scanned images of their OMR sheet by logging into their account, using their user ID (Registration No.) and Password on AIPMT website, as per the schedule given in the notification and the candidates were given liberty to challenge any answer given in the answer key of the CBSE or the OMR Grading of their OMR sheet by paying due charges of `1,000/- per response, but it was made clear that offline requests would not be entertained and the decision of the CBSE in that matter shall be final.
Similarly, in the Civil Services Examination, conducted by the Union Public Service Commission for more than 7 lacs candidates, the question booklet is allowed to be carried away by the candidates after the exam is over.
Thus, the question would be if the question booklet is allowed to be carried away in AIPMT exam conducted by the CBSE for 6 lacs candidates, then why it is not being allowed in the PMET by the University in which only 15517 candidates had appeared?
A similar issue came up for adjudication before the Delhi High Court in the case of Master Rajat Mann vs. Guru Gobind Singh Indraprastha University & ors. in LPA No.543/2014, decided on 07.05.2015, wherein the petitioner-appellant had appeared in the Common Entrance Test VINOD KUMAR CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 149 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh held by the Guru Gobind Singh Indraprastha University, for admission to its MBBS course, in the year 2014-2015 and after qualifying Stage-I of the examination, appeared in Stage-II and was ranked at No.3631 with 75 out of 150 marks in Botany and 63 out of 150 marks in the subject of Zoology. He was not satisfied with the marks awarded to him in the said two subjects and applied under the Right to Information Act, 2005, for the copies of the Optical Mark Reader (OMR) answer sheets, question paper and answer keys because it was the practice of the University to take back the question papers from the examinees before they would leave the examination hall. The respondent-
University in that case allowed only inspection of the OMR answer sheet and did not provide the question paper or the answer key stating that there was no provision therefore. In that situation, the said petition was filed, which was dismissed by the learned Single Judge in limine on the ground that the remedy of the petitioner was to file the appeal before the Central Information Commissioner (CIC) if the appropriate information was not supplied by the University on his application filed under the Right to Information Act, 2005.
However, the said petitioner challenged the order of the Single Judge in intra-
court appeal, in which it was submitted that the petitioner had also challenged the vires of the regulation for permitting only inspection of the answer sheets and prohibiting furnishing of question papers and answer keys. The University took almost similar stand, as has been taken in the present case, for denying the prayer of the petitioner; of limited stock of questions, question bank would be known to the coaching colleges and the question paper has a sanctity etc. etc., but the Division Bench allowed the intra-court appeal, distinguishing the judgment in the case of All India Institute of Medical Sciences vs. Vikrant Bhuria, LPA No.487/2011, decided on 28.05.2012 on the ground that Vikrant VINOD KUMAR CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 150 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh Bhuria was not an examinee himself in that case and while relying upon the decision of the Supreme Court in the case of The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India vs. Shaunak H. Satya, (2011) 8 SCC 781, gave the following directions:-
"We accordingly, allow this appeal in terms of above by directing the respondent No.1 University to review its policy/rules/regulations qua question papers, answer key and OMR answer sheets of the student concerned, especially in the light of our observations in this judgment and to take a decision vis-à-vis the furnishing of copies of question papers, answer key and OMR answer sheet, of the MBBS entrance examination, of the information seeker under the RTI Act, within a period of three months herefrom".
Insofar as the present case is concerned, the stage for providing question paper, answer key and OMR response sheet to the petitioners has already been over, particularly when the question paper has been shown to the representative of the petitioners in the Court itself and the answer key has been attached by the University with its reply as Annexure R-26 (colly). However, the petitioners may assume the role of torch bearers for the others who would be taking their PMET exam in future, as this Court is also of the view that Clause 7(11) of the prospectus under the head "Conduct of the Test" is unreasonable and arbitrary as it does not have any reasonable object to achieve, rather the stand taken by the University is generating more and more litigation, causing hardship to the students and their parents/guardians who have converted the Court room into a virtual classroom in which teachers/experts, VINOD KUMAR CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 151 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh parents/guardians, students and the authorities of the University are debating on each and every question with unending material.
Even otherwise, if it is to be largely perceived, once the CBSE, conducting a mammoth entrance test all over the India, in the name of AIPMT, in which more than 6 lacs students had appeared, is allowing such students to carry their question paper alongwith them and also allowing them access to the answer keys and OMR response sheets, though in a restricted manner, inasmuch as, only the students who had appeared in the exam can have the access by using his user ID and password on the AIPMT website, though subject to payment of certain fee which has been made refundable in case the objection raised by such a student is found to be correct, then what is the difficulty for the University in not providing the question booklet, answer key and OMR response sheets, only in the name of limited stock of questions. If AIPMT could be held in such a manner, then why the State test could not be held as such, in which the number of candidates are just 15152 in comparison to 6 lacs in AIPMT.
Thus, in view of the aforesaid discussion, I am of the considered opinion that the prohibition contained in Clause 7(11) of the prospectus, wherein the candidates have been prohibited to carry question booklet, after the exam is over, is hereby held to be unreasonable and arbitrary as it does not have any reasonable object to achieve, rather it tends to breed a lot of discontentment and dissatisfaction amongst the student community.
It is directed that in future, the University shall allow the candidates appearing in the PMET exam, to carry their question booklet with them after the examination is over; answer keys shall be published on the internet on the website of the University and the candidates shall be allowed to have an access to their OMR sheets as per the pattern of the CBSE, which is being practiced in VINOD KUMAR CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 152 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh the AIPMT. In no case the question booklet shall be allowed to be taken out of the examination hall before the exam is over, even if in some special circumstances, with the special permission of the Centre Superintendent or the Invigilator, the candidate/student shall have to leave his/her seat or the examination hall. It is so mandated to avoid leakage of question paper during the currency of the exam.
The second question is answered accordingly.
Now I would attend the third and last but ticklish question.
The candidates were given four sets of question papers, viz. A, B, C and D, consisting of 200 questions on the subjects of Physics, Chemistry, Botany and Zoology. It was set in objective form in which 50 questions each were assigned to all the four subjects. The questions had four multiple options, out of which the candidate had to opt one correct and most appropriate option.
It is an admitted fact that the entrance test was held on 17.05.2015 and the result was declared on 18.05.2015 but before that, the University held a meeting under the chairmanship of Dr. D.S.Sidhu, Registrar of the University for answer key verification (final) in which four experts, namely, Dr. Navdeep Shekhar, Professor, Dept. of Botany, Dr. Kamaljeet Kaur, Associate Professor, Dept. of Zoology, Prof. Harjit Singh, Associate Professor, Dept. of Physics and Dr. Raman Mahajan, Associate Professor, Dept. of Chemistry, of the Govt.
Brijindra College, Faridkot, participated. Question Booklet of Set-A was provided to the subject experts to prepare the answer key. The experts opined that Question Nos.147 and 70 should be cancelled and equal marks be given to all the candidates. Thereafter, the result was declared.
When the notice was issued in the first petition, in which the petitioners have challenged correctness of 16 questions/answers, on the basis of VINOD KUMAR CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 153 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh their memory, the University immediately held another meeting on 08.06.2015 at 10.00 a.m., in the office of the Registrar of the University to deal with the objections raised about the questions, multiple options and answer key, in which the aforesaid experts again participated. This report dated 08.06.2015 of the experts was made a part of the reply, filed by the University, as Annexure R-27.
The University again held a meeting of the subject experts on 18.06.2015, a day before, when the case was listed before this Court on 19.06.2015. This report dated 18.06.2015 was more comprehensive than the earlier report dated 08.06.2015 and was produced by the University on 19.06.2015 in continuation of the earlier report dated 08.06.2015. During the course of hearing on 19.06.2015, counsel appearing on behalf of the University suffered a statement that he has instructions by the University to allow two petitioners to peruse the question paper in the Court so that they may have fair opportunity to pinpoint/highlight the alleged discrepancies, if any. Accordingly, petitioners No.2 and 7 in the first petition were allowed to peruse the question paper in the Court. They both spent more than one hour and highlighted about 40 alleged discrepancies. Thereafter, again the University experts met on 02.07.2015 to deal with the objections raised by the petitioners and the said report was produced in the Court. As against this, the petitioners also submitted report of their experts dated 06.07.2015, as a result thereof, the University again held a meeting of their subject experts on 14/15.07.2015 to consider the objections dated 06.07.2015 submitted by the petitioners' experts. This time, a very exhaustive report was prepared by the University in which contents of the question, contention of the petitioners and explanations and further replies to the petitioners' expert report was given. All the questions and answers were explained with the formulae and diagrams, wherever it was necessary.
VINOD KUMARCWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 154 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh Despite all the aforesaid four reports submitted by the University, the petitioners were agitating that there were printing errors in question Nos.10, 29, 32, 47, 53, 47, 61, 91 and 177; there were more than one correct answer to question Nos.4, 11, 15, 16, 17, 28, 38, 42 and 71; and about rest of the question Nos.6, 8, 9, 12, 14, 21, 22, 27, 30, 34, 40, 50, 84, 130, 136, 164, 169, 180, 186 and 189, the allegation was about the wrong application of formulae etc. During the course of hearing, counsel for the University fairly admitted that question Nos.19 and 26 were repeated and have been recommended to be deleted/cancelled and question No.47 has already been cancelled by the University because of the printing error.
Learned counsel for the petitioners vehemently argued that though the paper setter has picked up the questions from NCERT exemplar books, but at the time of printing, the University has failed to put superscripts and subscripts in the questions, more particularly in the subject of Chemistry and as a result thereof, the petitioners were literally confused at the time when they were taking their exam under the extreme mental pressure. It is also argued that in the case of Rajan Yadav and another vs. Himachal Pradesh University and another, 2000(3) SimLC 27, the text books prescribed by the University and published by the NCERT were taken as standard text books and have also referred to a judgment of the Supreme Court in the case of M.C.Mehta vs. Union of India and others, 2005(10) SCC 217, in which the Supreme Court had ordered to formulate the module syllabus for all the subjects including the one in Environmental Studies from Class-I to Class-X and for that NCERT was appointed as a Nodal Agency.
In response, learned counsel for the University has argued that the NCERT books are not infallible and has made a reference to the CWP No.4748 VINOD KUMAR CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 155 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh of 2014 filed by one Dr. Arvind Goyal, who runs a coaching institute in the subject of Biology for the students of Class-XI and Class-XII, for preparing them for the various entrance tests. Dr. Goyal filed a Public Interest Litigation alleging that there were numerous mistakes in the books of Biology, including the exemplars of Class-XI and Class-XII, published by the NCERT, as ambiguous and erroneous questions were there, which have not been corrected despite the representation made by him. The said writ petition was disposed of by the Division Bench of this Court on 13.03.2014, directing the NCERT to carry out necessary exercise, in pursuance of the representation made by the petitioner Dr. Arvind Goyal, giving them a month's time to do the needful.
The said Dr. Arvind Goyal again came to this Court with another CWP No.11200 of 2014 complaining about some more errors in the NCERT books and exemplars, which was also disposed of on 19.05.2014 by the Division Bench of this Court with similar directions to the NCERT, as were given in CWP No.4748 of 2014.
It is further submitted that Dr. Arvind Goyal once again filed CWP No.2317 of 2015 (PIL) highlighting 50 more errors in the NCERT books of Biology, while referring to the earlier two petitions filed by him but the said petition was withdrawn by him with liberty to pursue the NCERT to make more corrections in the books of Biology of Class-XI and Class-XII. The said order was passed on 02.03.2015.
He also submitted that the University has only prescribed syllabus in the prospectus and not the text books to be consulted by the students. It is further submitted that the NCERT books are not the only standard text books and has tried to explain the meaning of "text book" and "standard" with the aid of the Webster's Encyclopedic Unabridged Dictionary of the English language, VINOD KUMAR CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 156 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh in which word "text book" is defined as "a book used by students as a standard work for a particular branch of study" and the word "standard" is defined as "something considered by the authority or by general consent as a basis of comparison" or "an approved mode".
From the above, the Court has found that even the teachers, who are engaged in the coaching of the students for the entrance test, are not satisfied with the quality of the NCERT books, whereas in the present case, much reliance has been placed by the petitioners on the questions which are there in the NCERT exemplars/books.
Thus, in my considered opinion, the NCERT books are not the only source of reliance/knowledge for the students who are taking up such a competitive exam for the purpose of admission to the MBBS course.
As regards the printing errors in question Nos.10, 29, 32, 47, 53, 57, 61, 91 and 177, counsel for the University has submitted that most of the petitioners, alongwith other candidates, have rightly understood the import of the question despite the absence of superscripts and subscripts and depicted the position by way of the following chart:-
Q. No. No. of petitioners who No. of top- No. of top- No. of top (Set `A') have answered ranking ranking ranking correctly as per candidates who candidates who candidates who University Answer-Key have answered have answered have answered (out of 41 petitioners) correctly (out of correctly (out of correctly ( out of 41 toppers) 100 toppers) 200 toppers) 10 26 39 86 167 29 18 22 55 91 32 12 9 22 47 47 12 19 45 79 53 9 14 35 70 57 36 40 97 196 61 34 39 95 186 91 22 36 91 174 177 32 40 94 187 VINOD KUMAR CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 157 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh It is further argued that the petitioners, who have rightly answered the aforesaid questions, have no moral ground or justification to challenge the same in the present writ petition(s).
Insofar as the question of more than one answer in the NCERT exemplars is concerned, counsel for the University has submitted that it was made known to the candidates that out of four options, they shall have to choose only one correct or most appropriate response. He has submitted that since the paper setter wanted to judge in-depth knowledge of the examinees/candidates, therefore, some questions were set as brain teasers. A lot of time of the Court was consumed by both the parties in deliberation on question No.71, which was set in the following language:-
"Q. No.71. Argon was discovered by
a) Rayleigh b) Ramsay
c) Lockyr d) None of the above"
The contention of the petitioners was that argon was discovered both by Rayleigh and Ramsay, whereas it was not provided as one of the options in the multiple four choices, which could have been answered by the petitioners, rather the question was very particular and the petitioners had to choose either from Rayleigh or Ramsay.
In this regard, Mr. Kohli, learned counsel appearing on behalf of the petitioner in the second petition, has referred to the Modern Inorganic Chemistry by C. Chambers and A.K. Holliday, in which it is mentioned that the argon was discovered in 1894 by English chemist John William Strutt, most commonly known as Lord Rayleigh and Scottish chemist William Ramsay. It was the first of the noble gases to be isolated. Rayleigh and Ramsay discovered argon by the fractional distillation of liquid air. Fractional distillation is the VINOD KUMAR CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 158 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh process of letting liquid air slowly warm up. As the air warms, different elements change from a liquid back to a gas. The portion of air that changes back to a gas at -185.860C (-302.550F) is argon.
He has further referred to the Chemistry of the Noble Gases by Professor N.N. Greenwood, University of Newcastle upon Tyne, in which it is mentioned that the first inert gas was isolated in 1895 by Ramsay and Rayleigh and it was named argon and occurs to the extent of 0.93% in the earth's atmosphere.
He has also referred to the proceedings of the Royal Society of London, which has a reference that the argon, a new constituent of the atmosphere, was not discovered by the Rayleigh alone but by both Rayleigh and Ramsay.
On the other hand, counsel for the University has referred to the Britannica Concise Encyclopedia which provides that the Rayleigh was awarded the Nobel Prize for Physics for his isolation of argon. He further referred to the Britannica Global Edition, in which again it has been mentioned that the Nobel Prize for Physics in 1904 was received by Rayleigh for his successful isolation of argon, an inert atmospheric gas.
The argument in this regard seems to be un-ending and in furtherance thereof, counsel for the University has referred to the Nobel Prizes of 1904, wherein Lord Rayleigh had received the Nobel Prize in Physics 1904 for his investigations of the densities of the most important gases and for his discovery of argon in connection with these studies and Sir William Ramsay was awarded Nobel Prize in Chemistry 1904 for recognition of his services in the discovery of the inert gaseous elements in air, and his determination of their place in the periodic system.
VINOD KUMARCWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 159 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh He has also referred to the presentation speech by the Professor J.E. Cederblom, President of the Royal Swedish Academy of Sciences, delivered at the time of award ceremony when both Rayleigh and Ramsay were awarded Nobel Prizes for Physics and Chemistry respectively; Rayleigh for discovering the argon and Ramsay for discovering the other noble gases.
However, learned counsel for the University, who has otherwise appeared to be quite sure for discovery of argon by Rayleigh, stated that he had the instructions from the University to award marks to all the candidates who have answered both Rayleigh and Ramsay as the correct answer to that question.
In view thereof, this Court observes that those students, who have also answered "Ramsay" as the correct answer to question No.71, would also be awarded equal marks for that question.
Similarly, lot of material from Indian and foreign authors was referred during the course of hearing in respect of question Nos.4, 10, 11, 28, 32, 50, 61, 84, 91, 130, 164, 169, 177 and 186 by both the sides, but the University did not concede and rather stuck to their stand taken in the report of their experts.
Thus, the question would arise as to whether this Court has the advantage of the report of the experts or not?
As I have already discussed that the University, even before declaring the result and without knowing that there could be a possibility of an error in the question booklet or the answer key, held a meeting on 18.05.2015 itself in which all the four experts, who are Professors in their respective departments, met under the chairmanship of the Registrar of the University and recommended that question No.147 and 70 deserve to be cancelled and equal marks are required to be given to all the candidates. Before coming to this VINOD KUMAR CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 160 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh Court, again a meeting was held on 08.06.2015 when notice was served upon the University and the allegations made in para No.17 of the writ petition were looked into in order to explain its stand in respect of the disputed questions.
Needless to mention that again a meeting was held on 18.06.2015 and report was presented in the Court and when the question paper was shown to the students, in response to their objections, again a meeting was held on 02.07.215 and after the report of their experts was submitted by the petitioners, again a meeting was held on 14/15/.07.2015 and an exhaustive report was submitted by the University.
In the presence of more than four exhaustive reports of the experts of the University, should the Court rely upon the expert report furnished by the petitioners?
Learned counsel for the University, while strongly challenging the credibility of the experts of the petitioners, has submitted that the petitioners' expert Sh. Shiv Charan Gupta (Physics) has not approached the Court with clean hands and is guilty of suppression of facts.
In support of his submission, he has referred to the CWP No.13498 of 2015, filed by Sh. Shiv Charan Gupta, in which he has challenged the examination process of PMET-2015 being unfair and also sought a direction to the University to produce the entire record pertaining to PMET-2015 including question paper and the answer key and further to upload the answer key of the PMET-2015 and OMR sheet of the candidates on the website of the University.
He has mentioned in his petition that he has been providing guidance/coaching in the subject of Physics to the needy students, aspiring to get admission in the medical/engineering colleges. He has alleged that he had approached the University by way of a representation for cancellation of the PMET-2015 on VINOD KUMAR CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 161 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh 25.06.2015 but he did not disclose either in the petition or at the time when the case was taken up for hearing by the Court that he has been actively participating in the present writ petition at the behest of the petitioners. It is further submitted that the said writ petition was dismissed by the Division Bench on 09.07.2015 on the ground that the petitioner Sh. Shiv Charan Gupta had no locus standi to challenge the result of the PMET-2015 as he is not one of the examinees. It is further submitted by learned counsel for the University that Sh. Shiv Charan Gupta did not disclose his qualification nor other experts of the petitioners have done it, either Dr. Sangeeta Khanna, who has opined about the questions of Chemistry or Harpal Singh who has given his opinion regarding the questions of Biology despite the fact that it was openly challenged by the University throughout but the petitioners failed to provide the Bio-Data of their experts.
As against this, counsel for the University has submitted that the experts of the University are all Professors and have Doctorate to their credit in their respective subjects. Their complete Bio-Data has been given in the reply to instill confidence of the Court about their mastery in the respective subjects.
Thus, in view of the above, I do not find it to be a reasonable cause to seek another expert opinion at this stage from a third agency, as suggested by learned counsel for the petitioners and I am also not relying upon the expert report of the petitioners as against the exhaustive report(s) furnished by the experts of the University whose credentials have been established on record.
Counsel for the University has further argued that the main objective of the petitioners is to seek re-examination because they have not faired well in the examination and in that regard he has given the PMET ranking of the petitioners, which is also reproduced as under:-
VINOD KUMARCWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 162 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh Sr. Roll No. Name PMET PMET No. Marks Rank 1 514000 Ruminder Preet Kaur 544 622 2 509482 Gunica 540 680 3 503794 Trishika Verma 536 754 4 502179 Bhavika Garg 536 790 5 505790 Viren Rai 528 969 6 500679 Deepanshi Mangla 524 1096 7 511023 Apoorva Sharma 520 1133 8 507329 Ajay Deep Syal 520 1168 9 512432 Rekha Batheja 516 1222 10 511586 Rashi Mittal 516 1233 11 510661 Nimish Garg 516 1243 12 511417 Parag Sharma 516 1265 13 503173 Ishita Gupta Kaushal 512 1310 14 514742 Akhilesh Sharma 512 1317 15 511980 Iresh Bansal 508 1441 16 509000 Anmolshree 508 1508 17 512264 Abhinav Malhotra 508 1533 18 506752 Ks. Vikramaditya Rai 492 1885 19 504744 Harsimran Kalsi 492 1931 20 513808 Ankush Aggarwal 492 1985 21 518980 Adeshpal Singh 489 2014 22 508710 Shina Shahi 488 2117 23 504327 Oshin Madaan 484 2171 24 506526 Sukrit Janjua 480 2341 25 514836 Pritish Guatam 480 2370 26 502605 Gurleen Kaur 479 2409 27 514452 Harshaman Kaur 479 2410 28 503941 Danish Bhalla 476 2509 29 502520 Gaurja Juneja 456 3242 30 505770 Samiksha Sharma 456 3266 31 509229 Divesh Sharma 452 3334 32 501906 Arshdeep 452 3384 33 500068 Ritika 440 3912 34 510043 Sargun Kaur Virk 432 4141 35 506172 Niharika Jaggi 432 4197 36 501896 Hargunn Kaur 432 4232 37 511388 Shairmohinder Puri 424 4594 38 506223 Naresh Salhan 380 6513 39 509863 Jasmeen Kaur 379 6685 40 507851 Snagam Kang 358 7729 41 501470 Aakash 276 12033
Learned counsel for the petitioners, in order to support their arguments for the purpose of re-examination, have relied upon various judgments, namely, Kanpur University, through Vice-Chancellor and others VINOD KUMAR CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 163 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh vs. Samir Gupta and others, 1983 AIR (SC) 1230; Guru Nanak Dev University vs. Saumil Garg and others, (2005) 13 Supreme Court Cases 749;
Manish Ujwal and others vs. Maharishi Dayanand Saraswati University and others, 2005(13) SCC 744; J. Antony Clara vs. The State of Tamilnadu and others, Writ Petition (MD) No.13267 of 2013, decided on 01.10.2013;
R. Parameshwari vs. Government of Tamil Nadu and others, W.P. No.1775 of 2014, decided on 27.03.2014; and Rishabh Saxena & others vs. State of Rajasthan & others, Civil Writ Petition No.7040 of 2014, decided on 26.06.2014.
On the other hand, learned counsel for the University has referred to the judgments, namely, Abhijit Sen and others vs. State of U.P. and others, (1984) 2 Supreme Court Cases 319; Rajesh Kumar and others vs. State of Bihar and others, (2013) 4 Supreme Court Cases 690; Chalamalasetty Satyendra Kumar and Ors. vs. Government of A.P. and others; 1996(3) Andh LD 1116; K.P.Shanthi vs. The Secretary to Government and others, W.P. No.21170 of 2012, decided on 01.10.2012; Mridul Dhar (minor) and another vs. Union of India and others, (2005) 2 Supreme Court Cases 65; and Medical Council of India vs. Madhu Singh and others, (2002) 7 Supreme Court Cases 258.
Learned counsel for the University has also relied upon a judgment of the Supreme Court in the case of Priya Gupta vs. State of Chhattisgarh and others, (2012) 7 Supreme Court Cases 433, to contend that the re-examination at this stage would not be justified when the last date for admission is fixed as 30.09.2015 by the Supreme Court.
In Kanpur University's case (supra), the question involved was that if a paper-setter commits an error while indicating the correct answer to a VINOD KUMAR CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 164 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh question set by him, can the students who answer that question correctly be failed for the reason that though their answer is correct, it does not accord with the answer supplied by the paper-setter to the University as the correct answer?
It was also a case for admission to medical colleges in the State of Uttar Pradesh on the basis of the result of Combined Pre-Medical Test conducted by the nominated University, namely, Kanpur University. The said University held multiple choice objective type tests. The difficulty in that case arose because the key answers disclosed by the paper setter were turned out to be wrong. The candidates had approached the Allahabad High Court contending that the answers ticked by them were correct and the key answer was wrong. There was controversy in regard to three questions, one each in the papers of Chemistry, Zoology and Botany. The question paper was set in both Hindi and English languages and it was pointed out that the question set in Hindi (translated) was different from the question set in English. Similar problem arose in the other two questions as well because of its frame in Hindi and English language.
In Guru Nanak Dev University's case (supra), respondent Saumil Garg etc. laid the challenge to the second PMET test conducted by the Guru Nanak Dev University on 30.06.2005. The respondents disputed the correctness of the answer key of the 21 questions. The Division Bench, in its elaborate judgment, referred to the questions, answers of the experts and scrapped the result, directing the University to revaluate the answer sheets. Since the Division Bench had also made scathing remarks upon the paper setters, the said University challenged the order of the Division Bench before the Supreme Court, in which the direction issued by the High Court for fixing responsibility on the paper-setters and those who have been vested with the responsibility to finalize the key answers and consequential steps to be taken was upheld but it VINOD KUMAR CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 165 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh was also held that in case of doubt, the benefit in regard to the answer provided in the answer key would go in favour of the examining body. As a matter of fact, the judgment in Guru Nanak Dev University's case (supra) does not advance the case of the petitioners as no direction for re-examination was issued in that case. Similarly, there was no direction in Manish Ujwal's case (supra) for re-examination, rather direction was issued for reevaluation of the question by feeding the correct answers.
In K.R.Shanthi's case (supra), applications were invited for direct recruitment to various vacancies for the year 2011-2012 in the post of Post Graduate Assistants/Physical Education Directors Gr.1 in the Tamil Nadu Higher Secondary Educational Services. As per the Scheme of the examination, there was a written examination consisting of a single paper of three hours duration with 150 marks, which were divided into main subject, Educational Methodology and General knowledge. The question paper was of objective type with multiple-choice answers. The dispute was with regard to error in the answer key. The learned Single Judge laboured hard and took upon himself the work of assessing the correctness of the answer to the disputed questions which were asked from various subjects like Political Science, Tamil, Botany, Physics, History, Commerce, Geography, Economics, Maths and English, and came to the conclusion that the answer key to various questions were wrongly set and, thus, evaluation based upon it was invalid. The direction was issued to the Teachers Recruitment Board (TRB) to reevaluate the answer sheets as per the correct answers and publish the result. The parting note in the judgment was full of displeasure of the Court for the manner in which the key answers were set by the paper setters and TRB was practically let off with a warning that they should not commit the same mistake in future.
VINOD KUMARCWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 166 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh Thereafter, in J. Antony Clara's case (supra), similar litigation came up before the same Single Bench of the Madras High Court where the TRB, Government of Tamil Nadu, issued advertisement, inviting applications for direct recruitment to the vacancies for the year 2012-2013 in the post of Post Graduate Assistants/Physical Education Directors Grade-I in the Tamil Nadu Higher Secondary Educational Service. This time again, there were mistakes to the extent of 47 questions, which were admitted by the Chairman of the TRB.
Since there was an admission on the part of the examining body and the same Single Judge had issued a warning to the TRB in the earlier litigation in K.R.Shanthi's case (supra), therefore the result was scrapped and re-examination was ordered.
In R. Parameshwari's case (supra), decided by the same Single Judge of the Madras High Court, reference was made with regard to the order passed in J. Antony Clara's case (supra) and also to an order passed by the LPA Bench whereby the order of re-examination passed by the learned Single Judge was stayed and, ultimately, the said writ petition was disposed of on the ground that the said petitioners were not entitled for the award of grace marks for want of vacancies.
As regards the decision in Rishabh Saxena's case (supra), it was a bunch of writ petitions decided by the Rajasthan High Court. It also pertains to the admission to MBBS course in different medical colleges in the State of Rajasthan in the year 2014 and the learned Single Judge quashed the result and directed holding of fresh entrance test.
In this regard, counsel for the University has vehemently argued that the facts of the said case are to be noticed first.
VINOD KUMARCWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 167 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh In the said case, some of the affected candidates approached the State Government during the pendency of the writ petition, alleging various irregularities in the examination. The State Government constituted a Committee of experts to look into the grievance of such students and on the basis of the report of the Committee, decided to hold a fresh examination.
It is submitted that the entrance examination in that case was held at different centres with different question papers where as in the present case, the examination has been held at one venue and all the students had the same question paper. The University in that case had adopted the equipercentile method to rationalize the result which was found to be highly complex, confusing and cumbersome process and beyond comprehension of the candidates and, thus, it was held that the equipercentile formula was unwarranted and on that ground alone, the examination was set aside and re-
examination was ordered.
On the other hand, counsel for the University has argued that in Abhijit Sen's case (supra), the Supreme Court has held that "suffice it to say that this Court has expressed therein a clear and categorical view that if the `key-answer' (i.e. the answer which the paper-setter has supplied to the University as the correct answer and which has been fed into the computer) is shown to be demonstrably wrong, that is to say, such as no reasonable body of men well versed in the particular subject would regard it as correct and if the answer given by a student is correct if regard be had to acknowledged text-
books or books which the student was expected to read and consult before appearing for the test it would be unfair to penalize the student for not giving an answer which accords with the `key-answer' that is to say with an answer which is demonstrated to be wrong."
VINOD KUMARCWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 168 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh He has further relied upon the decision in Rajesh Kumar's case (supra) in which also, the dispute was with regard to "model answer key". It was a case where selection process was started by the Bihar State Staff Selection Commission for appointment of Junior Engineer (Civil) on the basis of written examination. The learned Single Judge held that 41 model answers out of 100 were wrong. It was also held that two questions were wrong and two others were repeated and, thus, ordered that the entire examination was liable to be cancelled. However, the LPA Bench partly allowed the appeal, declaring that the entire examination need not be cancelled as there was no allegation of any corrupt motive or malpractice and issued directions for reevaluation on the basis of correct answer key prepared on the basis of the report of the experts and the view of the LPA Bench was accepted by the Supreme Court.
Similarly, in Chalamalasetty Satyendra Kumar's case (supra), the Division Bench of the Andhra Pradesh High Court was dealing with a public interest litigation filed for cancellation of Engineering, Agriculture and Medicine Common Entrance Test-1996 on the ground of leakage of said papers at various centres. However, in that case, the examination was not cancelled.
In the end, learned counsel for the University, while referring to the latest judgment of the Supreme Court in Tanvi Sarwal's case (supra), has submitted that it was a clear case of leakage of the AIPMET-2015, prima facie established, because not only the gadgets and material used for the unfair means were recovered but also the police cracked the case by arresting certain kingpins who have been indulging in those nefarious activities since long.
Shri Rajiv Atma Ram, learned senior counsel appearing on behalf of respondents No.4 and 5, has also sought to argue that re-conduct of the examination at this stage would be very harsh on the candidates who have been VINOD KUMAR CWP No.11475 of 2015 (O&M) ( 169 ) 2015.09.01 14:21 I attest to the accuracy and authenticity of this document Chandigarh successful and had also attempted the same question papers like the petitioners and in this regard, he has referred to a Division Bench judgment of this case in the case of Sameer Khurana and others vs. Board of School Education Haryana and others, LPA No.1956 of 2012, decided on 16.01.2013.
Thus, in view of the aforesaid discussion, I am of the considered opinion that in the facts and circumstances of the present case, re-examination cannot be ordered.
The third question is decided accordingly.
However, the University is directed to revise the PMET-2015 result in view of cancellation of questions No.19, 26, 47 and the observations made by this Court in regard to question No.71 of Question Booklet Set-A and start admission process forthwith.
Hence, all the three writ petitions are hereby disposed of.
No costs.
September 01, 2015 (Rakesh Kumar Jain) vinod* Judge