Karnataka High Court
Prabhu vs The State Of Karnataka on 17 March, 2025
Author: Suraj Govindaraj
Bench: Suraj Govindaraj
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WP No. 203394 of 2023
R
IN THE HIGH COURT OF KARNATAKA,
KALABURAGI BENCH
DATED THIS THE 17TH DAY OF MARCH, 2025
BEFORE
THE HON'BLE MR. JUSTICE SURAJ GOVINDARAJ
WRIT PETITION NO. 203394 OF 2023 (GM-CC)
BETWEEN:
PRABHU
S/O BHAMALA CHAVAN
AGE 53 YEARS
OCC: AGRICULTURIST, SOCIAL SERVICE
MEMBER OF LEGISLATIVE ASSEMBLY
R/O GHAMSUBAI TANDA, BONTHI
TALUK: AURAD DISTRICT BIDAR-585326.
...PETITIONER
(BY SRI. AMEET KUMAR DESHPANDE SR. COUNSEL FOR
SRI. GANESH S. KALBURGI., ADVOCATE)
AND:
1. THE STATE OF KARNATAKA
REPRESENTED BY ITS PRINCIPAL SECRETARY
Digitally signed DEPARTMENT OF REVENUE
by SHWETHA VIDHANA SOUDHA, BENGALURU-01.
RAGHAVENDRA
Location: HIGH 2. COMMISSIONER AND APPELLATE AUTHORITY
COURT OF SOCIAL WELFARE DEPARTMENT
KARNATAKA 5TH FLOOR, M.S BUILDING
DR B R AMBEDKAR VIDHI
BENGALURU-560001
3. THE DEPUTY COMMISSINER-CUM-CHAIRMAN
DISTRICT CASTE VERIFICATION COMMITTEE
BIDAR DISTRICT
BIDAR-585401.
4. THE ADDL. DIRECTOR GENERAL OF POLICE
(CIVIL RIGHTS ENFORCEMENT DIRECTORATE)
PALACE ROAD, BENGALURU-560001.
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WP No. 203394 of 2023
5. THE DISTRICT CASTE VERIFICATION COMMITTEE
BIDAR DISTRICT
BIDAR-585401
REPRESENTED BY ITS MEMBER SECRETARY
6. THE ASSISTANT COMMISSIONER
BIDAR-585401
7. THE TAHSILDAR
BIDAR-585401.
8. THE REVENUE INSPECTOR
DHABKA REVENUE CIRCLE
AURAD-B DISTRICT
BIDAR-585426.
9. SRI. NARASING
S/O THUKARMA
AGED ABOUT 67 YEARS
R/O HOUSE NO.1/124
HALAHALLI VILLAGE
KAMALNAGAR TALUK
BIDAR DISTRICT-585417
... RESPONDENTS
(BY SRI. C. JAGADISH., ADVOCATE FOR
SRI. ADITYA NARAYAN &
SRI. RAVI B. PATIL., ADVOCATES FOR C/R9)
THIS WRIT PETITION IS FILED UNDER ARTICLES 226 AND 227
OF THE CONSTITUTION OF INDIA PRAYING TO QUASH THE NOTICE
OF ENQUIRY DATED 22.11.2023 ISSUED BY RESPONDENT NO.2 IN
FILE NO. SKNI/MI.JA.KO-3/DAAVE-11/2023-24, THE COPY OF WHICH
IS AT ANNEXURE-A AND ETC.
*****
THIS WRIT PETITION COMING ON FOR ORDERS AND HAVING
BEEN RESERVED FOR ORDERS ON 01.10.2024, THIS DAY, THE
COURT PRONOUNCED THE FOLLOWING:
CORAM: HON'BLE MR. JUSTICE SURAJ GOVINDARAJ
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WP No. 203394 of 2023
CAV ORDER
(PER: HON'BLE MR. JUSTICE SURAJ GOVINDARAJ)
1. The Petitioner is before this Court seeking for the
following reliefs:
i. Quash the notice of enquiry dated 22.11.2023
issued by respondent no.2 in the file No.
SKNI/MI.JA.KO-3/DAAVE-11/2023-24, the copy of
which is at Annexure-A;
ii. Issue any other appropriate writ, order or
direction as this Hon'ble Court may deem fit to
grant in the facts and circumstances of the case,
in the interest of justice.
2. The petitioner is aggrieved by a notice of enquiry
dated 22.11.2023 issued by respondent No.2-
Commissioner and Appellate Authority, Social Welfare
Department directing the petitioner to appear before
respondent No.3-Deputy Commissioner-cum-
Chairman, District Caste Verification Committee (for
short hereinafter referred to as "DCVC") with regard
to an appeal filed by respondent No.9 challenging the
earlier order of the District Caste Verification
Committee, Bidar-respondent No.5.
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3. The petitioner is a Member of Legislative Assembly
from 'Aurad' Constituency in Bidar District being
reserved for Schedule Caste Category. The petitioner
claiming to belong to the "Lambani" caste which is a
'Schedule Caste' has been elected in the year 2008,
2013, 2018 and 2023. The candidature of the
petitioner was based on the certificate issued by the
jurisdictional Tahsildar at the first instance on
02.05.2008 and the second instance on 04.02.2013.
When the petitioner got elected for second time in
the year 2013, the Additional Director General of
Police (Directorate of Civil Rights Enforcement-
DCRE)-respondent No.4 on the complaint of one
Sri.Shankarrao Doddi had directed an enquiry by the
District Caste Verification Committee (DCVC) with
regard to the validity of the caste certificate issued in
favour of the petitioner.
4. The DCVC after due verification and enquiry passed
an order on 20.11.2017 holding that the petitioner is
a resident of State of Karnataka and that he belongs
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to the 'Lambani' caste. Sri.Shankarrao Doddi
challenged the same by filing a writ petition in WP
No.58264/2017 which came to be dismissed on
06.03.2018 holding that the petitioner has an
alternative efficacious remedy under Section 4D (i) of
the Karnataka Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes
and Other Backward Classes (Reservation of
Appointment etc.) Act, 1990 (for short hereinafter
referred to as 'Act of 1990').
5. Sri. Shankarrao Doddi had filed an appeal before
Respondent No.2 in appeal No.01/2018-19 but
however withdrew the same on 07.05.2018. Though
respondent No.2 had permitted the withdrawal,
respondent No.2 had directed respondent No.3 to
examine the caste certificate issued to the petitioner
by a separate letter dated 07.05.2008 issued to
respondent No.3.
6. Which apparently has not been done since on
19.12.2020 respondent No.2 withdrew the letter
addressed to respondent No.3 on the ground that
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there is no provision for issuance of such letter for
re-examining the issue.
7. Subsequently, one Mr. Ravindraswamy had filed a
Revision under Section 4F of the Act of 1990 before
respondent No.3-the DCVC which came to be
rejected on the ground that the same stood
concluded by the earlier order of the DCVC dated
20.11.2017. A writ petition came to be filed by
Sri.Ravindra Swamy in WP No.225917/2020. In the
said writ petition, Sri.Ravindra Swamy had also
challenged the order dated 20.11.2017 passed by
the DCVC.
8. One Sri.Vijaykumar had filed another Revision
Petition in file No.C&V CR/98/2016-17 before the
Deputy Commissioner-cum-Chairman, DCVC-
Respondent No.3. The said Sri.Vijaykumar had also
filed a Writ Petition in WP No.226907/2020 seeking a
direction to Respondent No.3 i.e., the Chairman of
the DCVC to decide the Revision filed by him within
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time. In both the above writ petitions, the petitioner
was arrayed as a respondent.
9. A Co-ordinate Bench of this Court vide order dated
01.02.2022 allowed the writ petition filed by
Sri.Vijaykumar and directed the respondent-
Authorities to conduct fresh enquiry, with regard to
the caste certificate issued in favour of the petitioner.
10. The petitioner challenged the same in
WA No.200031/2022 and WA No.200032/2022. The
Division Bench vide judgment dated 13.01.2023,
allowed both the appeals and dismissed both the writ
petitions by imposing cost. The said judgment in the
writ appeals were challenged before the Hon'ble Apex
Court in SLP (C) No.7747/2023, which came to be
dismissed on 01.05.2023.
11. Subsequent to the disposal of all the above,
Respondent No.9 preferred an appeal under Section
4D of the Act of 1990 before the Commissioner and
Appellate Authority- Respondent No.2, challenging
the order dated 20.11.2017 passed by the DCVC.
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The Respondent No. 2-Commisisoner and Appellate
authority issued notice of enquiry to the petitioner, it
is challenging the same the petitioner is before this
Court seeking for aforesaid reliefs.
Submissions on behalf of the Petitioner:
12. Sri. Ameet Kumar Deshpande., learned Senior
counsel appearing for the petitioner, would submit
that;
12.1. The notice issued by Respondent No.2 is wholly
without jurisdiction and as such, this Court can
exercise jurisdiction in the present matter to
quash the same and though a notice has been
challenged, the same would not preclude this
Court from excising the jurisdiction.
12.2. The petitioner has faced enquiry and/or
proceedings on three earlier occasions, and
having succeeded in all of them, Respondent
No.9 could not have filed another appeal before
Respondent No.2, on which basis Respondent
No.2 has issued the present impugned notice.
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In this regard, he relies upon Section 4D of the
Act of 1990, which reads as under;
4D. Appeal.- (1) Any person aggrieved by an order
passed by the Verification Committee under section
4C may, within thirty days from the date of receipt
of the order appeal,-
(i) to the Commissioner / Director, Social Welfare in
case the verification certificate relates to a person
belonging to the Scheduled Castes;
(ii) to the Director, Tribal Welfare in case the
verification certificate relates to a person belonging
to the Scheduled Tribes;
(iii) to the Director, Backward classes Department,
in case the verification certificate relates to a person
belonging to other Backward Classes;
in such form and in such manner and on payment of
such fee as may be prescribed.
(2) The Appellate Authority shall after giving to both
the parties an opportunity of being heard pass such
order in appeal as it deems fit.
12.3. By relying on the said provision, he submits
that an appeal, if any, by any person aggrieved
by an order passed by the Verification
Committee under Section 4C has to be filed
within 30 days from the date of receipt of the
order. The order having been passed way back
on 20.11.2017, no proceedings could have
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been initiated by Respondent No.9, termed as
an appeal challenging the order dated
20.11.2017.
12.4. Respondent No.9 can neither be considered to
be an aggrieved party, nor can he maintain an
appeal over an order as regards which he was
not a party.
12.5. The very same order dated 20.11.2017 having
been challenged by Sri.Shankarrao Daddi, who
was a complainant in the earlier proceedings by
filing an appeal and the appeal having been
withdrawn by him, the entire proceedings came
to an end. Hence, there is no question of any
other person, including Respondent No.9
preferring another appeal challenging the very
same order.
12.6. Respondent No.2, having disposed the earlier
appeal as withdrawn having become 'Functus
Officio' could not entertain any other appeal as
regard the very same subject matter, he having
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been rendered 'Functus Officio' not having any
jurisdiction in the matter.
12.7. Respondent No.2 ought to have dismissed the
appeal in limine on account of it being barred
by the law of limitation. The appeal had been
filed after lapse of more than six years, when it
was required to be filed within a period of 30
days from the order. There being no application
filed for condonation of delay, such a delay not
capable of being condoned, respondent No.2
instead of dismissing, the appellate authority
has issued notice which is wholly without
jurisdiction and amounts to harassment of the
petitioner. The petitioner being forced to
defend multiple proceedings for no fault of his.
12.8. The matter has attained finality inasmuch as in
the Writ Petition filed by
Sri.Ravindraswamy in WP No.225917/2020,
where the order of the DCVC was quashed by
the learned single judge, the Writ Appeal filed
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came to be allowed on 1.2.2022, thereby
dismissing the Writ Petition. Therefore, his
submission is that the caste certificate and the
order dated 20.11.2017 passed by the DCVC
stood merged with the order dated 13.1.2023
passed in WA No.200031/2022 and WA
No.200032/2022. Hence, the question of
Respondent No.9, filing an appeal challenging
the order dated 20.11.2017, which had merged
with the order of the Division Bench of this
Court dated 13.1.2023 in WA No.200031/2022
would not arise.
12.9. Respondent No.2 would be deciding over a
matter which has already been decided by a
Division Bench of this Court in the aforesaid WA
No.200031/2022, which is not permissible.
12.10. He relies upon the decision of the Hon'ble Apex
Court in SLP(C) No.7747 of 2023, which is
reproduced hereunder for easy reference:
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WP No. 203394 of 2023
No case for interferenece under Article 136 of the
Constitution of India is made out. The Special Leave
Petition is dismissed. Pending applications, if any,
also stand disposed of.
12.11. By relying on the same, he submits that as
regards the very same caste certificate, the
Hon'ble Apex Court has categorically held that
the order of the DCVC cannot be meddled with
at the sweet will of the disgruntled party after a
gap of several years. The said decision, he
submits applies on all fours to the present
matter also.
12.12. Respondent No.2 was also a party in the Writ
Appeal, he is aware of the orders passed by the
Division Bench. Despite which the impugned
notice has been issued to the petitioner after a
lapse of nearly six years at the instance of
respondent No.9 without application of mind.
12.13. He supports the earlier decision of the DCVC
dated 20.11.2017, by contending that the said
order was passed after conducting necessary
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enquiry, considering all the relevant records like
birth certificate, resident certificate, voters list,
family background etc., the factual finding of
the DCVC after due enquiry cannot be
interfered with or set aside on the basis of a
fresh enquiry now proposed on the basis of a
fresh complaint filed by Respondent No. 9. The
matter having been settled by the various
orders which have been passed, the question of
reopening the same at the instance of
Respondent No.9 would not arise.
12.14. He lays emphasis on the petitioner being a
Member of Legislative Assembly for four
consecutive terms and submits that the
petitioner has been targeted by various
persons, one after the other, and the petitioner
has been made to suffer one enquiry after the
other, when in fact there is no such
requirement. The order passed on the
complaint of Sri.Shankarrao Doddi having
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attained finality, the question of subsequently
Sri.Ravindraswamy and Sri.Vijaykumar filing
complaints followed now by the complaint of
Respondent No.9-Sri.Narasingh, is completely
malafide.
12.15. As regards the locus of Respondent No.9, he
submits that merely because Respondent No.9
is a person belonging to Schedule Caste, he
would not have any locus to file an appeal when
he was not a party to the earlier proceedings.
The petitioner has been made to suffer enquiry
and/or litigation on three earlier occasions
which cannot be countenanced in law or fact
and as such he submits that this Court ought to
intercede in the matter and quash the notice
which has been issued.
12.16. The present appeal filed by respondent No.9 is
also barred by the principle of res-judicata,
inasmuch as the Division Bench of this Court
has already adjudicated the issue concerning
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the validity of the petitioner's caste certificate
in its judgment dated 13.01.2023 passed in WA
No.200031/2022 and WA No.200032/2022. By
referring to Section 11 of the Civil Procedure
Code 1908, it is submitted that when an issue
has been directly and substantially in issue in a
former suit or proceeding between the same
parties or between parties under whom they
claim, has been finally decided, it cannot be
reopened in a subsequent proceeding/s.
12.17. In this regard, he submits that the petitioner's
caste certificate was directly and substantially
in issue before the DCVC and subsequently
before this Court in Writ Petitions as also Writ
Appeals going upto a Special Leave Petition
before the Hon'ble Apex Court. In all the
proceedings, orders having been passed in
favour of the petitioner, the said issue relating
to the caste certificate of the petitioner has
attained finality by dismissal of the Special
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Leave Petition by the Hon'ble Apex Court and
as such, the Respondent No.9 cannot seek to
re-agitate the issue by filing an appeal before
the Respondent No.2.
12.18. When an order is passed on a complaint filed by
a third party, the said order having attained
finality, no other person can seek to re-agitate
or re-open the said issue by re-initiating
proceedings and/or filing an appeal. If the same
is permitted, it would apart from violating the
principles of res-judicata would also result in
unnecessary harassment of the petitioner by
abusing the process of Court.
12.19. Respondent No.9 also has no locus to challenge
the order dated 20.11.2017, since he was not a
party to the order dated 20.11.2017, all the
further appeals filed in relation thereto.
Respondent No.9 being a contestant in the
elections, if at all he is aggrieved by the
petitioner contesting on the basis of the caste
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certificate issued. Respondent No.9 is required
to raise the same in an Election Petition
challenging the election of the petitioner.
12.20. Respondent No.9 cannot seek to reopen a
closed matter by filing an appeal under Section
4D of the Act of 1990. The legal forum
available for Respondent No.9 is only through
an Election Petition under the Representation of
the People Act, 1950.
12.21. He relies upon the decision of the Hon'ble Apex
Court in Union of India vs Vicco
Laboratories1, more particularly para nos. 30
and 31 thereof, which are reproduced
hereunder for easy reference:
30. At this juncture, it would be necessary to
take note of the stand of learned counsel for the
appellants that in the packages meant for export
different descriptions were given. In this context
it is to be noted that in the packing meant for
export instead of the word 'Ayurved', the
expression 'Herbal' is used. The special
permission was taken from the Drugs Control
Authority for such use. The letter dated
14.6.1996 of the Government of India, Ministry
1
2007 AIR SCW 7618
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of Health & Family Welfare (Department of ISM &
H) is relevant. The same reads as follows:
"New Delhi,
dated 14.6.1996
To
The Asstt. Drug Controller (India),
New Custom House, Fort,
Bombay-400038.
Sub: Export of Vicco Vajradanti Tooth Paste,
Powder and Turmeric Cream- regarding
A representation received from the firm in regard
to export of the subject products with labeling
acceptable to importing countries and the
modification made in the labels, which are
otherwise used in the country. Having examined
the matter, it is opined that there may be no
objection in export of subject products labeled as
herbal products. This permission is limited to
export purpose only.
Sd/-
Illegible.
(Ashwini Kumar)
For Drug Controller General (I)
Copy to:
Shri G.K. Pendharkar,
Vicco Laboratories,
25, Jerbai Wadia Road,
Parel, Bombay -400012"
31. Normally, the writ court should not interfere
at the stage of issuance of show cause notice by
the authorities. In such a case, the parties get
ample opportunity to put forth their contentions
before the concerned authorities and to satisfy
the concerned authorities about the absence of
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case for proceeding against the person against
whom the show cause notices have been issued.
Abstinence from interference at the stage of
issuance of show cause notice in order to
relegate the parties to the proceedings before
the concerned authorities is the normal rule.
However, the said rule is not without exceptions.
Where a Show Cause notice is issued either
without jurisdiction or in an abuse of process of
law, certainly in that case, the writ court would
not hesitate to interfere even at the stage of
issuance of show cause notice. The interference
at the show cause notice stage should be rare
and not in a routine manner. Mere assertion by
the writ petitioner that notice was without
jurisdiction and/or abuse of process of law would
not suffice. It should be prima facie established
to be so. Where factual adjudication would be
necessary, interference is ruled out.
12.22. By relying on Vicco Laboratories case, he
submits that whenever any notice issued would
amount to an abuse of the process of law, a
writ Court under Article 226 of the Constitution,
is empowered to interfere and pass necessary
order so as to prevent miscarriage of justice
and uphold the Rule of law.
12.23. He relies upon the decision of the Hon'ble Apex
Court in Ayaaubkhan Narkhan Pathan vs
State of Maharashtra2, more particularly para
2
2012 AIR SCW 6177
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WP No. 203394 of 2023
nos. 7, 12 and 15 thereof, which are
reproduced hereunder are for easy reference:
7. It is a settled legal proposition that a stranger
cannot be permitted to meddle in any
proceeding, unless he satisfies the
Authority/Court, that he falls within the category
of aggrieved persons. Only a person who has
suffered, or suffers from legal injury can
challenge the act/action/order etc. in a court of
law. A writ petition under Article 226 of the
Constitution is maintainable either for the
purpose of enforcing a statutory or legal right, or
when there is a complaint by the appellant that
there has been a breach of statutory duty on the
part of the Authorities. Therefore, there must be
a judicially enforceable right available for
enforcement, on the basis of which writ
jurisdiction is resorted to. The Court can of
course, enforce the performance of a statutory
duty by a public body, using its writ jurisdiction
at the behest of a person, provided that such
person satisfies the Court that he has a legal
right to insist on such performance. The
existence of such right is a condition precedent
for invoking the writ jurisdiction of the courts. It
is implicit in the exercise of such extraordinary
jurisdiction that, the relief prayed for must be
one to enforce a legal right. Infact, the existence
of such right, is the foundation of the exercise of
the said jurisdiction by the Court. The legal right
that can be enforced must ordinarily be the right
of the appellant himself, who complains of
infraction of such right and approaches the Court
for relief as regards the same. (Vide : State of
Orissa v. Madan Gopal Rungta, AIR 1952 SC 12;
Saghir Ahmad & Anr. v. State of U.P., AIR 1954
SC 728; Calcutta Gas Company (Proprietary) Ltd.
v. State of West Bengal & Ors., AIR 1962 SC
1044; Rajendra Singh v. State of Madhya
Pradesh, AIR 1996 SC 2736; and Tamilnad
Mercantile Bank Shareholders Welfare
Association (2) v. S.C. Sekar & Ors., (2009) 2
SCC 784
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12. This Court has consistently cautioned the
courts against entertaining public interest
litigation filed by unscrupulous persons, as such
meddlers do not hesitate to abuse the process of
the court. The right of effective access to justice,
which has emerged with the new social rights
regime, must be used to serve basic human
rights, which purport to guarantee legal rights
and, therefore, a workable remedy within the
framework of the judicial system must be
provided. Whenever any public interest is
invoked, the court must examine the case to
ensure that there is in fact, genuine public
interest involved. The court must maintain strict
vigilance to ensure that there is no abuse of the
process of court and that, "ordinarily
meddlesome bystanders are not granted a Visa".
Many societal pollutants create new problems of
non-redressed grievances, and the court should
make an earnest endeavour to take up those
cases, where the subjective purpose of the lis
justifies the need for it. (Vide:
P.S.R. Sadhanantham v. Arunachalam & Anr.,
AIR 1980 SC 856; Dalip Singh v. State of U.P. &
Ors., (2010) 2 SCC 114; State of Uttaranchal v.
Balwant Singh Chaufal & Ors., (2010) 3 SCC
402; and Amar Singh v. Union of India & Ors.,
(2011) 7 SCC 69)
15. In view of the above, the law on the said
point can be summarised to the effect that a
person who raises a grievance, must show how
he has suffered legal injury. Generally, a
stranger having no right whatsoever to any post
or property, cannot be permitted to intervene in
the affairs of others.
Locus standi of respondent no.5
12.24. By relying on Ayaaubkhan Narkhan Pathan's
case, he submits that a stranger to the
proceedings cannot be said to be an aggrieved
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person, more so when he has not suffered any
legal injury.
12.25. He relies upon the decision of the Division
Bench of this Court in R.S. Mahadev vs B.R.
Gopamma3, more particularly para nos. 22,
23, 24, 25, 27, 28, 33 and 34 thereof, which
are reproduced hereunder for easy reference:
22. The other aspect of the matter is that in
Ayaaubkhan Noorkhan Pathan vs. State of
Maharashtra, [(2013) 4 SCC 465] (Ayaaubkhan
Noorkhan Pathan), it has been observed that it is
a settled legal proposition that a stranger cannot
be permitted to meddle in any proceeding,
unless he satisfies the authority/court, that he
falls within the category of aggrieved persons.
Only a person who has suffered, or suffers from
a legal injury can challenge the act/action/order
in a court of law. The relevant discussion on the
concept of aggrieved person is at paragraph
Nos.9 to 13, which are extracted as under:
"9. It is a settled legal proposition that a
stranger cannot be permitted to meddle in any
proceeding, unless he satisfies the
authority/court, that he falls within the category
of aggrieved persons. Only a person who has
suffered, or suffers from legal injury can
challenge the act/action/order, etc. in a court of
law. A writ petition under Article 226 of the
Constitution is maintainable either for the
purpose of enforcing a statutory or legal right, or
when there is a complaint by the appellant that
there has been a breach of statutory duty on the
part of the authorities. Therefore, there must be
3
WA No. 1242/2019
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a judicially enforceable right available for
enforcement, on the basis of which writ
jurisdiction is resorted to. The Court can, of
course, enforce the performance of a statutory
duty be a public body, using its writ jurisdiction
at the behest of a person provided that such
person satisfies the Court that he has a legal
right to insist on such performance. The
existence of such right is a condition precedent
for invoking the writ jurisdiction of the courts. It
is implicit in the exercise of such extraordinary
jurisdiction that the relief prayed for must be one
to enforce a legal right. In fact, the existence of
such right, is the foundation of the exercise of
the said jurisdiction by the Court. The legal right
that can be enforced must ordinarily be the
right of the appellant himself, who complains of
infraction of such right and approaches the Court
for relief as regards the same.
10. A "legal right", means an entitlement arising
out of legal rules. Thus, it may be defined as an
advantage, or a benefit conferred upon a person
by the rule of law. The expression, "person
aggrieved" does not include a person who suffers
from a psychological or an imaginary injury; a
person aggrieved must, therefore, necessarily be
one whose right or interest has been adversely
affected or jeopardised.
11. In Anand Sharadchandra Oka v. University of
Mumbai, a similar view was taken by this Court,
observing that, if a person claiming relief is not
eligible as per requirement, then he cannot be
said to be a person aggrieved regarding the
election or the selection of other person.
12. In A.Subash Babu vs. State of A.P., this
Court held: (SCC pp.628-29, para 25)
"25. The expression 'aggrieved person' enotes an
elastic and an elusive concept. It cannot be
confined within the bounds of a rigid, exact and
comprehensive definition. Its scope and meaning
depends on diverse, variable factors such as the
content and intent of the statute of which the
contravention is alleged, the specific
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circumstances of the case, the nature and extent
of the complainant's interest and the nature and
the extent of the prejudice or injury suffered by
the complainant."
13. This Court, even as regards the filing of a
habeas corpus petition, has explained that the
expression "next friend" means a person who is
not a total stranger. Such a petition cannot be
filed by one who is a complete stranger to the
person who is in alleged illegal custody."
23. A person can be said to be aggrieved only
when a person is denied a legal right by
someone who has a legal duty to do something
or abstain from doing something. Existence of
the right is implicit for the exercise of the
extraordinary jurisdiction by the High Court
under Article 226. For instance, a rival in a trade
has no locus standi to challenge the grant of
licence to other trader on the ground that the
licence was granted illegally or suffers from
defect of jurisdiction, vide J.M.Desai vs. Roshan
Kumar, [AIR 1976 SC 578], (J.M.Desai); Nagpur
Rice and Flour Mills vs. Teekappa Gowda and
Brothers, [AIR 1971 SC 246] Nagpur Rice and
Flour Mills). In J.M.Desai, provisions of Bombay
Cinemas Registration Act, 1953 and the Bombay
Cinema Rules, 1954 came up for consideration
and paragraphs 36 to 41 of the said judgment
read as under:-
"36. It will be seen that in the context of locus
standi to apply for a writ of certiorari, an
applicant may ordinarily fall in any of these
categories: (i) 'person aggrieved'; (ii) 'stranger';
(iii) busybody of meddlesome interloper.
Persons in the last category are easily
distinguishable from those coming under the first
two categories. Such persons interfere in things
which do not concern them. They masquerade as
crusaders for justice. They pretend to act in the
name of Pro Bono Publico, though they have no
interest of the public or even of their own to
protect. They indulge in the past-time of
meddling with the judicial process either by force
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of habit or from improper motives. Often, they
are actuated by a desire to win notoriety or
cheap popularity; while the ulterior intent of
some applicants in this category may be no more
than spoking the wheels of administration. The
High Court should do well to reject the
applications of such busy bodies at the
threshold.
37. The distinction between the first and second
categories of applicants, though real, is not
always well-demarcated. The first category has,
as it were, two concentric zones; a solid central
zone of certainty, and a grey outer circle of
lessening certainty in a sliding centrifugal scale,
with an outermost nebulous fringe of
uncertainty. Applicants falling within the central
zone are those whose legal rights have been
infringed. Such applicants undoubtedly stand in
the category of 'persons aggrieved'. In the grey
outer-circle the bounds which separate the first
category from the second, intermix, interfuse
and overlap
increasingly in a centrifugal direction. All persons
in this outer-zone may not be "persons
aggrieved".
38. To distinguish such applicants from
'strangers', among them, some board tests may
be deduced from the conspectus made above.
These tests are not absolute and ultimate. Their
efficacy varies according to the circumstances of
the case, including the statutory context in which
the matter falls to be considered. These are:
Whether the applicant is a person whose legal
right has been infringed? Has he suffered a legal
wrong or injury, in the sense, that his interest,
recognized by law, has been prejudicially and
directly affected by the act or omission of the
authority, complained of? Is he a person who
has suffered a legal
grievance, a person "against whom a decision
has been pronounced which has wrongfully
deprived him of something or wrongfully refused
him something or wrongfully affected his title to
something? Has he a special and substantial
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grievance of his own beyond some grievance or
inconvenience suffered by him in common with
the rest of the public? Was he entitled to object
and be heard by the authority before it took the
impugned action? If so, was he prejudicially
affected in the exercise of that right by the act of
usurpation of jurisdiction on the part of the
authority? Is the statute, in the context of which
the scope of the words "person aggrieved" is
being considered, a social welfare measure
designed to lay down ethical or professional
standards of conduct for the community? Or is it
a statute dealing with private rights of particular
individuals?
39. Now let us apply these tests to the case in
hand. The Act and the Rules to which we are
concerned, are not designed to set norms of
moral or professional conduct for the community
at large or even a section thereof. They only
regulate the exercise of private rights of an
individual to carry on a particular business on his
property. In this context, "person aggrieved"
must receive a strict construction.
40. Did the appellant have a legal right under
the statutory provisions or under the general law
which has been subjected to or threatened with
injury? The answer in the circumstances of the
case must necessarily be in the negative.
41. The Act and the Rules do not confer any
substantive justiciable right on a rival in cinema
trade, apart from the option, in common with the
rest of the public, to lodge an objection in
response to the notice published under Rule 4.
The appellants did not avail of this option. He did
not lodge any objection in response to the
notice, the due publication of which was not
denied. No explanation has been given as to why
he did not prefer any objection to the grant of
the No-Objection-Certificate before the District
Magistrate or the Government. Even if he had
objected before the District Magistrate, and
failed, the Act
would not give him a right of appeal. Section 8A
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of the Act confers a right of appeal to the State
Government, only on any person aggrieved by
an order of a licensing authority refusing to grant
a license, or revoking or suspending any license
under Section 8. Obviously, the appellant was
not a person aggrieved" within the
contemplation of Section 8A."(underlining by us)
Thus, a person who is not aggrieved by any
discrimination complained of, cannot maintain a
writ petition. [D.Nagaraja vs. State of Karnataka,
AIR 1977 SC 876] (D.Nagaraja).
24. That apart, Section 4-B of the Karnataka
Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes and Other
Backward Classes (Reservation of Appointment,
etc.) Act, 1990, reads as under:-
"4-B. Appeal against order under Section 4-A.--
(1) Any person aggrieved by an order of the
Tahsildar under Section 4-A may, within thirty
days from the date of receipt of the order, prefer
an appeal to Assistant Commissioner of the
Revenue sub-division.
(2) The Assistant Commissioner of the Revenue
sub-division may after giving both parties an
opportunity of being heard pass orders allowing
or dismissing the appeal and in appropriate
cases directing issue of a caste certificate, or as
the case may be, an income and caste certificate
to the applicant." On a reading of the same it is
evident that the only a person aggrieved by an
order of the Tahsildar under Section 4-A with
regard to issuance of caste certificate and
income certificate, can file a appeal to the
Assistant Commissioner of the Revenue sub-
division and not otherwise.
25. The expression "a person
aggrieved/aggrieved person/aggrieved" could be
further explained with reference to K.J.Iyer's
"Judicial Dictionary", 16th Edition (2014), as
under:
• The word 'aggrieved refers to a substantial
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grievance, a denial of some personal, pecuniary
or property right, or the imposition upon a party
of a burden or obligation;
• A man who has suffered a legal grievance-a
man against whom a decision has been
pronounced, which has wrongly deprived him of
something or wrongfully affected his title. [Re.
Sidebotham (1880) 24 Ch D 458].
• A person injured or damaged in a legal sense.
The question whether a person is 'aggrieved' for
the purpose of complaining against another, is to
be determined by the nature of injury or offence,
and the special circumstance of each case. Any
fanciful or sentimental grievance does not
suffice; there
must be injuria or a legal grievance, that is, such
grievance as law can appreciate and not a stat
pro ratione valuntas reasons. [3 CrLJ 187].
• The expression 'aggrieved person' means a
person who has got a legal grievance, i.e., a
person is wrongfully deprived of anything of
which he is legally entitled and not merely a
person who suffered some sort of
disappointment. [Gopal Prasad Chourasia vs.
Prasanna kumar Shrivastava, (1999) JLJ 478
(487) (MP) (DB)].
• Not every person who has suffered some
disappointment or whose expectations have not
been realised as a result of the decision or order
can claim to be an 'aggrieved person'. [Bar
Council of Maharashtra vs. M.V.Dabholkar, AIR
975 SC 2092].
27. The appellant herein has not made out a
case as to how he was aggrieved by issuance of
a caste certificate in favour of respondent No.1.
He was not a person who had applied to the post
of Kannada Teacher in the Aided Institution, to
which respondent No.1 was appointed. He has
not been denied any benefit on account of
issuance of the caste certificate in favour of
respondent No.1, which he had claimed.
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Therefore, the appellant had no right to file a
complaint against respondent No.1 herein and he
had no locus standi to do so.
28. Learned counsel for the appellant drew our
attention to Circular dated 30.6.2007 issued by
the State Government that Circular is contrary to
the provision of law, which we have extracted
above. As already noted, it is only a person who
is aggrieved can file an appeal under Section 4-B
of the Act. The Circular cannot be contrary to the
provision of the statute. In fact, the said Circular
nowhere enables the appellant herein to file a
complaint, as the appellant had no locus standi
to do so. Merely because, the said Circular
enables a person to file a complaint, would not
imply that, any person, although does not have
the locus standi to do so as he is not an
aggrieved person, can file such a complaint. It is
only an aggrieved person who is a stakeholder,
such as an employer or the person who has been
denied a caste certificate or a person who has
been denied of a post in Government or public
service or a seat in an educational institution on
account of a fraudulent caste certificate obtained
by another person, who can file such a
complaint. Therefore, placing reliance on the
aforesaid dictum of the Hon'ble Supreme Court
in Ayaaubkhan, we hold that the appellant herein
had no locus standi to file a complaint against
respondent No.1, as he was not a person
aggrieved.
33. Learned counsel for respondent No.1 placed
reliance on Kavita Solunke vs. State of
Maharashtra and Others [(2012)8 SCC 430] to
contend that, it is only in a case of a false,
fabricated caste certificate being obtained or by
misrepresentation on fraud, which would
disentitle a candidate from getting relief from the
Court or when, on the basis of such a fraudulent
caste certificate being issued, no benefits could
be derived.
34. But, in the instant case, there was no
falsehood, fabrication, manipulation or
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concealment made by respondent No.1, while
being issued the caste certificate in the year 1979.
The same was issued to her on the basis of the
law prevailing at the relevant point of time,
namely the judgment of the Hon'ble Supreme
Court in N.E.Horo. Subsequent declaration of law
by overruling the N.E.Horo cannot ipso facto result
in the caste certificate issued to respondent No.1
herein being fraudulent, illegal or invalid. In this
regard, we find considerable force in the
submission of the learned counsel for respondent
No.1.
12.26. By relying on R.S. Mahadev 's case, he
submits that the extraordinary jurisdiction in
Article 226 can only be exercised when there is
a legal injury caused to a person who claims to
be aggrieved. There being no legal injury
caused to respondent No.9, he could not have
filed an appeal.
12.27. He relies upon the decision of the Hon'ble Apex
Court in S.S. Rathore vs State of M.P.4, more
particularly para nos. 13 and 14 thereof, which
are reproduced hereunder for easy reference:
13. A three-Judge Bench decision in the case of
Somnath Sahu v. State of Orissa [(1969) 3 SCC
384] is an authority in support of the position
as accepted by the two Constitution Bench
judgments referred to above. There, it was held
4
AIR 1990 SC 10
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in the case of a service dispute that the original
order merged in the appellate order of the
State Government and it is the appellate
decision which subsisted and became operative
in law and was capable of enforcement. That
judgment relied upon another decision of this
Court in support of its view being CIT v. Amrit
Lal Bhogilal & Co. [AIR 1958 SC 868 : 1959
SCR 713 : (1958) 34 ITR 130].
14. The distinction adopted in Mohammad
Nooh case [AIR 1958 SC 86 : 1958 SCR 595]
between a court and a tribunal being the
appellate or the revisional authority is one
without any legal justification. Powers of
adjudication ordinarily vested in courts are
being exercised under the law by tribunals and
other constituted authorities. In fact, in respect
of many disputes the jurisdiction of the court is
now barred and there is a vesting of jurisdiction
in tribunals and authorities. That being the
position, we see no justification for the
distinction between courts and tribunals in
regard to the principle of merger. On the
authority of the precedents indicated, it must
be held that the order of dismissal made by the
Collector did merge into the order of the
Divisional Commissioner when the appellant's
appeal was dismissed on 31-8-1966.
12.28. By relying on S.S. Rathore's case, he submits
that insofar as the Doctrine of Merger is
concerned, there is no distinction which can be
drawn between orders of the Courts and that of
the order of the Tribunal. Insofar as the
present case is concerned, his submission is
that the earlier order of the DCVC dated
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20.11.2017, got merged with the order of the
single judge dated 01.02.2022 which got
merged with the order of Division Bench dated
13.01.2023 which subsequently was merged
with the order of the Hon'ble Apex Court dated
01.05.2023. Thus, the order of the Hon'ble
Apex Court is in pursuance of the earlier order
of DCVC dated 20.11.2017. The order of the
Apex Court is to be regarded to be a merged
order of all the proceedings and now that the
Hon'ble Apex Court has decided on the matter,
the question of the Respondent No.9 filing one
more appeal before Respondent No.2 would not
arise.
12.29. He relies upon the decision of the Hon'ble Apex
Court in Gulabchand Parikh vs State of
Bombay5, more particularly para nos. 60 and
61 thereof, which are reproduced hereunder for
easy reference:
5
AIR 1965 SC 1153
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60. As a result of the above discussion, we are
of opinion that the provisions of Section 11 CPC
are not exhaustive with respect to an earlier
decision operating as res-judicata between the
same parties on the same matter in
controversy in a subsequent regular suit and
that on the general principle of res-judicata,
any previous decision on a matter in
controversy, decided after full contest or after
affording fair opportunity to the parties to
prove their case by a Court competent to
decide it, will operate as res-judicata in a
subsequent regular suit. It is not necessary that
the Court deciding the matter formerly be
competent to decide the subsequent suit or
that the former proceeding and the subsequent
suit have the same subject-matter. The nature
of the former proceeding is immaterial.
61. We do not see any good reason to preclude
such decisions on matters in controversy in writ
proceedings under Articles 226 or 32 of the
Constitution from operating as res-judicata in
subsequent regular suits on the same matters
in controversy between the same parties and
thus to give limited effect to the principle of the
finality of decisions after full contest. We
therefore hold that, on the general principle of
res-judicata, the decision of the High Court on
a writ petition under Article 226 on the merits
on a matter after contest will operate as res-
judicata in a subsequent regular suit between
the same parties with respect to the same
matter.
12.30. By relying on Gulabchand Parikh's case, he
submits that whenever there is a decision
rendered by a Court after affording fair
opportunity to parties therein, the same would
operate as a res-judicata in subsequent
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proceedings. In the present case, enough
opportunity was granted to the earlier
complainants who were heard and reasoned
orders were passed and therefore the said
orders would amount to res-judicata insofar as
the complaint of Respondent No.9 is also
concerned.
12.31. He relies upon the decision of this Court in
A. Chandrashekhar vs State of Karnataka6,
more particularly para no. 11 (viii) thereof,
which is reproduced hereunder for easy
reference:
11.viii) Insofar as the contention urged by the
petitioners with regard to filing of a review
petition in R.P.No.159/2020 and
R.P.No.515/2019 against the order of the
Division Bench is concerned, the said
contention deserves to be rejected for more
than one reason; Even according to the
petitioners, the said Review petitions are still
pending adjudication before this Court and
consequently, the question of re-agitating the
same issue all over again by way of the present
petition does not arise and the petition is not
maintainable on this ground alone. Further, as
held by the Division Bench of this Court in Sri.
J.D. Mosses & Another vs. Smt.Meka
Sheshamma & Anoter - Review Petition
6
WP No.51849 of 2018
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WP No. 203394 of 2023
No.610/2017 dated 11.06.2019, filing of a
review petition before this Court by the very
same petitioners after their SLP was rejected by
the Apex Court, is nothing but an abuse of
process of law and Court as hereunder:-
"25. But, what is more important to note in the
instant case is whether there is an abuse of
process of this Court and consequently,
whether the petitioners are empowered to
invoke the review jurisdiction after the Hon'ble
Supreme Court has dismissed the special leave
petition after hearing the counsel on both sides
and therefore, emphasis on judicial propriety
and discipline would assume significance.
Further, this is also not a case where before the
Hon'ble Supreme Court permission was sought
for withdrawal of the special leave petition with
liberty to file a review petition which we have
come across in many cases and on the strength
of the liberty granted by the Hon'ble Supreme
Court, delay in filing the review petition is
condoned by the High Court and the review
petitions are ntertained and disposed of. But, in
the instant case, there is no withdrawal of the
special leave petition, on the other hand, the
special leave petition is dismissed after hearing
the learned counsel on both sides. In fact, in
such a circumstance, liberty was not sought to
file a review petition and it could not have been
sought by the petitioners as they were
unsuccessful before the Hon'ble Supreme
Court.
26. Further, what is of significance is that the
review petition has been filed four years after
the dismissal of the regular first appeal by a co-
ordinate bench of this Court. It may be that the
petitioners herein were prosecuting this special
leave petition before the Hon'ble Supreme
Court. The Judges who passed the judgment in
the regular first appeal have since retired on
attaining the age of superannuation and after
the dismissal of special leave petition, a second
innings, so to say, is sought by the petitioners
in filing this review petition. In our view, this is
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a clear case of abuse of the process of law and
of this Court and a clear case of ignoring the
Supreme Court order dismissing the special
leave petition and venturing to file this review
petition, which is wholly speculative in nature.
We are afraid that in the instant case, we
cannot entertain the review petition owing to
judicial discipline and propriety and the glaring
facts in the instant case. If our non-entertaining
of the review petition is to be construed as an
error, then we would say that we may have
erred on the side of caution and on being
mindful of the judicial discipline and propriety,
as highlighted by the learned counsel for the
respondents and also the judgment of the
Hon'ble Supreme Court on the issue under
consideration, particularly the observations in
Abbai Maligai Partnership Firm which have not
been held to be contrary to law in any
subsequent judgments of the Hon'ble Supreme
Court.
27. Even though the Hon'ble Supreme Court
has in Khoday Distilleries Limited permitted the
review petition to be heard by this Court, the
same are based on the peculiar facts that
obtained in the said case which we have
referred to. This is not to say that the judgment
of the Hon'ble Supreme Court in Khoday
Distilleries Limited is based purely on the facts
of the said case. In fact, it is an order passed
on a reference to consider as to whether there
were conflicting opinions expressed in
judgments of the Hon'ble Supreme Court
subsequent to Abbai Maligai Partnership Firm or
Kunhayammed. While, considering the said
issue, the three Judge Bench in Khoday
Distilleries Limited has not over- ruled the
judgment in Abbai Maligai Partnership Firm but
has observed that it was decided on its own
peculiar facts. But, we find that the facts which
obtained in Abbai Maligai Partnership Firm are
replicated in the instant case, inasmuch as in
the said case also after the dismissal of the
special leave petition after hearing both sides,
the review petitions were filed challenging the
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judgment passed by the High Court after four
years and thus, there is a delay of 1051 days in
filing the review petitions after the dismissal of
the regular first appeal. In Abbai Maligai
Partnership Firm, the delay was condoned and
the order passed by the High Court was
reviewed and reversed and thereafter, the
appellants therein filed special leave petition
challenging the order passed in the review
petition. While allowing the said special leave
petition, the Hon'ble Supreme Court made the
observations deprecating the manner in which
the review petitions were filed and heard by the
High Court after the dismissal of the special
leave petitions, and the respondents therein
were directed to pay costs to the appellants
therein.
28. We find that the peculiar facts which arise
in Abbai Maligai Partnership Firm exactly arise
in the instant case also inasmuch as the review
petition filed herein is after the dismissal of the
special leave petition by the Hon'ble Supreme
Court on 24/04/2017. It may be that, in
Khoday Distilleries Limited the Hon'ble Supreme
Court permitted the review petition to be
entertained by this Court by setting aside the
order passed by this Court dismissing the
review petition as not maintainable, but we are
more mindful and conscious of the observations
in the nature of strictures passed by the
Hon'ble Supreme Court in paragraph No.4 of
Abbai Maligai Partnership Firm. The said
strictures are serious and it implies that once
the Supreme Court dismisses a special leave
petition, no review petition could be entertained
thereafter by the High Court.
29. In Union of India & Another Vs. Raghubir
Singh (Dead) by LRs. etc., [(1989) 2 SCC 754],
(Raghubir Singh) a Constitution Bench of the
Hon'ble Supreme Court has observed that India
is governed by a judicial system identified by a
hierarchy of courts, where doctrine of binding
precedent is a cardinal feature of its
jurisprudence. Unlike in the United Kingdom, in
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India, we have a written Constitution which
represents the supreme law of the land and the
Judiciary sits in judgment not only on the
implementation of the law by the Executive, but
also on the validity of the Legislation made by
the Parliament or the State Legislature which is
sought to be implemented. That the Supreme
Court as the highest court in the entire judicial
system, the law declared by it by Article 141 of
the Constitution is binding on all courts within
the territory of India. That the decisions of the
Supreme Court are of significance not merely
because they constitute adjudication on the
rights of the parties and resolve the dispute
between them, but also because in doing so,
they embody a declaration of law operating as
a binding principle in future cases. More
significantly, an order of the Supreme Court
passed after hearing the counsel for the
respective parties is binding on the parties.
Such an order cannot be interfered with by any
inferior court, unless leave has been granted to
any party to do so expressly. In our view, such
a thing cannot be permitted merely because the
special leave petition is dismissed. If review
petitions are filed and entertained after
dismissal of a special leave petition after
hearing both sides, it would result in a situation
of there being no finality in the matter.
30. Finality in judgments of courts is a salutary
principle of law. The Hon'ble supreme Court in
Union of India vs. S.P. Sharma, [(2014) 6 SCC
351, para 90], has held that an issue of law can
be overruled later on, but a question of fact
cannot be re-opened once it has been finally
sealed in proceedings inter se between the
parties. That the doctrine of finality has to be
applied in a strict legal sense. Re-opening of
concluded judgments of the Court would not
only tantamount to merely an abuse of the
process of the court but would have far-
reaching adverse effect on the administration of
justice. Thus, the principle of finality of
litigation is based on a sound firm principle of
public policy. In the absence of such a principle
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great oppression might result under the colour
and pretence of law inasmuch as there would
be no end to litigation. Further, in Rupa Ashok
Hurra vs. Ashok Hurra, [(2002) 4 SCC 388,
para 40], it has been observed that the
principle of finality is insisted upon not on the
ground that a judgment given by the Apex
Court is impeccable but on the maxim interest
reipublicae ut sit finis litium.
31. Further, the judgment in K.Rajamouli is by
a two judge Bench which has followed the
observations in Abbai Maligai Partnership Firm,
but in Gangadhar Palo, which is also a decision
by a two Judge Bench strength, has not
appreciated the observations made in Abbai
Maligai Partnership Firm. Similarly, in
Kunhayammed, which is also a decision of
three Hon'ble Judges, has also not over-ruled
the judgment in Abbai Maligai Partnership Firm.
32. In fact, in paragraph No.26.3 of Khoday
Distilleries Limited a reference has been made
to paragraph No.37 of Kunhayammed's case
which we have extracted above but we are
more conscious and are ound by what is stated
in paragraph No.26 in Kunhayammed's case
which is an extract of paragraph No.4 of Abbai
Maligai Partnership Firm. When the said
position of law has been affirmed by a three
Judge Bench in Kunhayammed and when
Kunhayammed has been affirmed in Khoday
Distilleries Limited, in our view, this review
petition, which is filed after the dismissal of
special leave petition, after hearing the counsel
on both sides, by the Hon'ble Supreme Court
affirming the judgment of this Court in the
regular first appeal, is not maintainable. In the
circumstances, we dismiss the review petition
as not maintainable. Consequently, all pending
applications stand dismissed.
No costs."
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12.32. By relying on A. Chandrashekhar's case, he
submits that even filing of a Review Petition
after the dismissal of a Special Leave Petition
has been held to be an abuse of the process of
Court/law, the filing of the appeal after the
dismissal of the SLP would amount to gross
abuse of the process of Court/law.
12.33. He relies upon the decision of Hon'ble Apex
Court in Owners and parties interested in
MV 'Vali Pero' ETC vs Fernando Lopez7
more particularly para nos. 6 and 7 thereof,
which are reproduced hereunder for easy
reference:
6. We shall first dispose of the preliminary
objection of Shri Ramamurthi. He has very fairly
stated that he does not challenge the
maintainability of these petitions but only assails
their entertainability under Article 136. In our
considered opinion pragmatism and assurance of
shortening this unduly protracted litigation are by
themselves sufficient and eloquent reasons to
grant leave in these matters and to decide the
above question on merits forthwith instead of
deferring that decision to a later date.
Technically, Shri Ramamurthi is right that
ordinarily special leave need not be granted
7
AIR 1989 SC 2206
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where a remedy of a statutory appeal being
available has not been exhausted. However, in
the particular facts of this case when the decision
in letters patent appeal appears to be a forgone
conclusion, the appropriate course which
commends itself to us is to grant leave and
decide the matter straightway instead of
deferring that decision to a later stage after
exhaustion of the futile remedy of letters patent
appeal in the High Court.
7. We may at this stage also mention the
argument based on res-judicata addressed to us.
The point raised is : whether the decision by a
Division Bench of the High Court affirming the
learned Single Judge's order excluding the
depositions from evidence will bar a fresh
adjudication of that point in the letters patent
appeal filed against the final decision in the suit?
In our opinion, this academic exercise is
unnecessary in the present case since it cannot
be doubted that irrespective of the question of
res-judicata, earlier decision on the same point
by a Division Bench of the High Court will at least
be a binding precedent when the matter is
reagitated before the Division Bench hearing the
appeal against the final decision in the suit. In
such a situation directing the resort to the
remedy of an appeal under the Letters Patent
against the final decision in the suit will
needlessly delay decision of the point by this
Court. We are, therefore, of the opinion that, in
the present case, it is neither necessary to
decide the question of res-judicata argued before
us nor would it be appropriate to refuse leave
and direct the petitioner to first exhaust the
remedy of an appeal under the Letters Patent in
the High Court. We, accordingly, proceed to
decide the point involved on merits.
12.34. By relying on Fernando Lopez's case, he
submits that merely because the petitioner
could reply to the show cause notice and/or
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merely because there is an alternative remedy,
this Court ought not to refuse to entertain the
writ petition. Since the exercise of replying to
the show cause notice, consideration of the
matter and passing necessary orders by
Respondent No.2 would be an exercise in
futility, more so when it is the judgment of the
Hon'ble Apex Court confirming the judgment of
the Division Bench of this Court, which would
be required to be applied.
12.35. He relies upon the decision of the Hon'ble Apex
Court in Whirlpool Corporation Vs.
Registrar of Trade Marks, Mumbai8, more
particularly paras 15, 16, 17, 18, 19, 20 & 21
thereof, which are reproduced hereunder for
easy reference;
15. Under Article 226 of the Constitution, the High
Court, having regard to the facts of the case, has a
discretion to entertain or not to entertain a writ
petition. But the High Court has imposed upon itself
certain restrictions one of which is that if an
8
(1998) 8 SCC 1
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effective and efficacious remedy is available, the
High Court would not normally exercise its
jurisdiction. But the alternative remedy has been
consistently held by this Court not to operate as a
bar in at least three contingencies, namely, where
the writ petition has been filed for the enforcement
of any of the Fundamental Rights or where there
has been a violation of the principle of natural
justice or where the order or proceedings are
wholly without jurisdiction or the vires of an Act is
challenged. There is a plethora of case-law on this
point but to cut down this circle of forensic
whirlpool, we would rely on some old decisions of
the evolutionary era of the constitutional law as
they still hold the field.
16.Rashid Ahmed v. Municipal Board, Kairana
[1950 SCC 221 : AIR 1950 SC 163 : 1950 SCR
566] laid down that existence of an adequate legal
remedy was a factor to be taken into consideration
in the matter of granting writs. This was followed
by another Rashid case, namely, K.S. Rashid & Son
v. Income Tax Investigation Commission [AIR 1954
SC 207 : (1954) 25 ITR 167] which reiterated the
above proposition and held that where alternative
remedy existed, it would be a sound exercise of
discretion to refuse to interfere in a petition under
Article 226. This proposition was, however,
qualified by the significant words, "unless there are
good grounds therefor", which indicated that
alternative remedy would not operate as an
absolute bar and that writ petition under Article 226
could still be entertained in exceptional
circumstances.
17. A specific and clear rule was laid down in State
of U.P. v. Mohd. Nooh [AIR 1958 SC 86 : 1958 SCR
595] as under:
"But this rule requiring the exhaustion of
statutory remedies before the writ will be granted is
a rule of policy, convenience and discretion rather
than a rule of law and instances are numerous
where a writ of certiorari has been issued in spite of
the fact that the aggrieved party had other
adequate legal remedies."
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18. This proposition was considered by a
Constitution Bench of this Court in A.V.
Venkateswaran, Collector of Customs v. Ramchand
Sobhraj Wadhwani [AIR 1961 SC 1506 : (1962) 1
SCR 753] and was affirmed and followed in the
following words:
"The passages in the judgments of this Court we
have extracted would indicate (1) that the two
exceptions which the learned Solicitor General
formulated to the normal rule as to the effect of the
existence of an adequate alternative remedy were
by no means exhaustive, and (2) that even beyond
them a discretion vested in the High Court to have
entertained the petition and granted the petitioner
relief notwithstanding the existence of an
alternative remedy. We need only add that the
broad lines of the general principles on which the
Court should act having been clearly laid down,
their application to the facts of each particular case
must necessarily be dependent on a variety of
individual facts which must govern the proper
exercise of the discretion of the Court, and that in a
matter which is thus pre-eminently one of
discretion, it is not possible or even if it were, it
would not be desirable to lay down inflexible rules
which should be applied with rigidity in every case
which comes up before the Court."
19. Another Constitution Bench decision in Calcutta
Discount Co. Ltd. v. ITO, Companies Distt. I [AIR
1961 SC 372 : (1961) 41 ITR 191] laid down:
"Though the writ of prohibition or certiorari will
not issue against an executive authority, the High
Courts have power to issue in a fit case an order
prohibiting an executive authority from acting
without jurisdiction. Where such action of an
executive authority acting without jurisdiction
subjects or is likely to subject a person to lengthy
proceedings and unnecessary harassment, the High
Courts will issue appropriate orders or directions to
prevent such consequences. Writ of certiorari and
prohibition can issue against the Income Tax Officer
acting without jurisdiction under Section 34,
Income Tax Act."
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20. Much water has since flown under the bridge,
but there has been no corrosive effect on these
decisions which, though old, continue to hold the
field with the result that law as to the jurisdiction of
the High Court in entertaining a writ petition under
Article 226 of the Constitution, in spite of the
alternative statutory remedies, is not affected,
specially in a case where the authority against
whom the writ is filed is shown to have had no
jurisdiction or had purported to usurp jurisdiction
without any legal foundation.
21. That being so, the High Court was not justified
in dismissing the writ petition at the initial stage
without examining the contention that the show-
cause notice issued to the appellant was wholly
without jurisdiction and that the Registrar, in the
circumstances of the case, was not justified in
acting as the "Tribunal".
12.36. By relying on Whirlpool Corporation's case,
he submits that this Court can intercede even
as regards a show-cause notice, if such show-
cause notice has been issued without
jurisdiction or the same amounts to an abuse of
the process of law.
12.37. On the basis of all the above, he submits that
the above petition is required to be allowed and
the reliefs sought for granted.
13. The submission of Sri.C.Jagdish., learned counsel
appearing for Respondents No.1 to 8 are;
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13.1. There was an earlier complaint received from
Sri.Shankarrao Doddi that the petitioner is a
permanent resident of Maharashtra and he
belongs to the Lambani community which is
notified as a denotified tribe in the State of
Maharashtra. Thus, the petitioner not being a
member belonging to Scheduled Tribe in
Maharashtra, he cannot claim to be a person
belonging to Scheduled Caste or Scheduled
Tribe in the State of Karnataka.
13.2. By suppressing the fact of the petitioner being
born in Maharashtra and/or that his Tribe has
been denotified, he has obtained a caste
certificate as "Lambani" within the State of
Karnataka showing himself to have been born
within the State of Karnataka.
13.3. Once earlier, a detailed enquiry had been
carried out by the Additional Director General of
Police (DRCE), and a detailed enquiry report
had been submitted to the DCVC. The DCVC,
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after conducting an enquiry passed an order in
favour of the petitioner, Sri.Shankarrao Doddi
had challenged the same in a writ petition in
WP No.58264/2017, which came to be
dismissed, reserving liberty to Sri.Shankarrao
Doddi to approach the Appellate Authority
under Section 4D of the Act of 1990.
13.4. An appeal having been filed, the petitioner had
challenged the said appeal by filing WP
No.201341/2018, which came to be disposed
on 20.4.2018 by this Court holding that any
contention that the petitioner may have as
regards the maintainability of the said appeal or
not was required to be raised before the
Appellate Authority who was required to
consider the same. Thus, he submits that this
order dated 20.4.2018 passed in WP
No.201341/2018 has been suppressed in the
present proceedings.
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13.5. This Court having directed the Appellate
Authority to decide the matter, there is no
decision which has been rendered by the
Appellate Authority. Instead, though counsel for
Sri.Shankarrao Doddi had addressed
arguments, on the next date, instead of
pursuing the matter, he withdrew the appeal
which came to be allowed by imposing a cost of
Rs.1,00,000/-.
13.6. The submission of Sri.C. Jagdish is that the
petitioner has prevailed upon Sri.Shankarrao
Doddi to withdraw the appeal. Withdrawal of
the appeal would not amount to res-judicata,
there is no order on merits which can be said to
have been passed on account of withdrawal of
the appeal.
13.7. The order dated 20.11.2017 has never stood
the rigor of an appeal and no orders on merits
has been passed on an appeal filed by
Sri.Shankarrao Doddi, as such there cannot be
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said to be a cause for invoking the principles of
res-judicata.
13.8. Insofar as the proceedings filed by
Sri.Ravindraswamy and Sri.Vijaykumar, he
submits that those proceedings were under
Section 4F invoking the revision powers and not
under Section 4D which are the appellate
powers. The Division Bench of this Court
holding that a Revision is not maintainable
would not come in the way of the appeal being
considered on merits, the Appeal being
maintainable.
13.9. As regards the locus standi, he submits that
respondent No.9 belongs to Schedule Caste
who had also contested the elections for the
'Aurad' Constituency in Bidar District. He being
unsuccessful on account of the petitioner
contesting in the said election by using a false
Schedule Caste Certificate, respondent No.9
would be an aggrieved party within the
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meaning of Section 4D of the Act of 1990. It is
for the petitioner to appear before respondent
No.2 and establish his case as per Sub-section
(5) of Section 4 of the Act of 1990. Since there
is no particular finding which has been rendered
by any Court as regards the validity or
otherwise of the caste certificate of the
petitioner and it is in that background he
submits that this Court ought not to intercede
at this stage but ought to relegate the
petitioner to the proceedings before the
Appellate Authority under Section 4D of the Act
of 1990.
13.10. He relies upon the decision rendered by this
Court in Vageesh B. vs The Deputy
Commissioner9 more particularly para nos. 11
and 12 thereof, which are reproduced
hereunder for easy reference:
9
WP No.8087/2023
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11. Insofar as the judgment of the Division
Bench in the case of R.S.MAHADEV (supra) is
concerned, the said judgment would also be
inapplicable to the facts of the case, as the
Division Bench was considering a case where
the complainant was a busybody and not a
person aggrieved. The facts therein were that
the person who had secured caste certificate did
not belong to Scheduled Caste by birth, but by
marriage to a Scheduled Caste she was given
the caste certificate. The question was a person
belonging to other community could be given a
caste certificate on marriage .That was
challenged by the complainant four years after
the retirement of the beneficiary. The Division
Bench clearly holds that the complaint therein
had no locus to challenge the caste certificate
issued to the beneficiary therein. Therefore,
both the judgments relied on by the learned
senior counsel for the petitioner - one in the
case of MS. M.N. KALAVATHI and the other in
the case of AYAAUBKHAN NOORKHAN
PATHAN, would become inapplicable to the
facts of the case, qua the solitary submission
i.e., the locus of the complainant.
12. In the light of the aforesaid judgment not
becoming applicable to the facts of the case on
hand, as the complainant in the case on hand
does belong to a Scheduled Caste, the writ
petition challenging a show cause notice is
unentertainable. Therefore, it is for the
petitioner to appear before the Deputy
Commissioner as is directed and produce all
such documents that are needed to advance his
case in the revision petition. None of the
observations made in the course of this order
will either influence or bind the proceedings
before the Deputy Commissioner.
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13.11. By relying on Vageesh B's case which in turn
relied upon Mahadev's case, he submits if a
complainant were to belong to Schedule Caste,
he would have locus, which is the case in
respect of Respondent No.9.
13.12. Insofar as the Doctrine of Merger is concerned
he submits that the appeal filed by
Sri.Shankarrao Doddi having been withdrawn,
which withdrawal was permitted by imposing
cost of Rs.1,00,000/-. The order passed by the
DCVC was not on merits decided by the
Appellate Authority, the withdrawal of the
appeal by Sri.Shankarrao Doddi would not
amount to an order being passed on merit.
Hence, the Doctrine of Merger would not apply.
His submission is that the Doctrine of Merger
would apply only if there are orders passed on
merits and not otherwise.
13.13. He refers to paragraph 32 of the order passed
in the writ appeal filed by Sri.Vijayakumar and
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Sri. Ravindra Swamy in WA No.200332/2022
and submits that even the Division Bench in
that case has held that the remedy is for filing
an appeal under Section 4D and that a Revision
under Section 4F was not maintainable. Thus,
the Division Bench having left open the remedy
under Section 4D, the petitioner not having
challenged the same cannot now contend that
an appeal under Section 4D is not maintainable
in the present case. Paragraph 32 of the order
passed in WA No.200332/2022 is reproduced
hereunder for easy reference:
32. At least the finding of this Court in
W.P.No.58264/2017 that against the DCVC's
order only an appeal under Section 4-D of the
Act lies to the Commissioner has become final.
Under the aforesaid circumstantces, as rightly
pointed out by the learned Counsel for Prabhu
Chavan the attempt of Ravindra Swamy and
Vijay Kumar to Challenge the order of Tahsildar
dated 04.02.2013 by filing revision petition
amounts to overreaching the order of this Court
in W.P.No.58264/2017. Therefore the said
revision petitions were not maintainable.
Consequently issuance of mandamus to the
Deputy Commissioner would serve no purpose.
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13.14. He relies upon the Division Bench judgment of
this Court in Satish Choudappa Honalli vs
State of Karnataka10 more particularly para
nos. 3 and 4 thereof, which are reproduced
hereunder for easy reference:
3. Having heard the learned counsel for the
parties and having perused the appeal papers,
we decline indulgence in the matter broadly
agreeing with the submission of learned AGA.
Wherever a certificate of social status is obtained
in violation of law or by playing fraud or is
granted by mistake, ordinarily proceedings are
permissible under the provisions of the 1990 Act
and the Rules promulgated thereunder, subject
to all just exceptions. Learned Single Judge
keeping this mind has rightly reserved liberty to
the Authorities concerned.
4. The submission of learned Senior Advocate
appearing for the appellant that once the Validity
Certificate is issued, never there can be any
enquiry in any circumstance, appears to be too
broad proposition of law. One immediate
example for faltering such a broad statement is
the ground of fraud. The Apex Court in
S.P.CHANGALAVARAYA NAIDU vs. JAGANNATH,
(1994) 1 SCC 1, has observed that fraud vitiates
everything. If a certificate of social status is
secured by playing fraud, the same can be
rescinded in an appropriate proceeding by the
jurisdictional authorities. Therefore, the Validity
Certificate cannot be construed as a China Wall
that prevents any action being taken.
10
WA No.587/2023
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13.15. By relying on Satish Choudappa Honalli's
Case, he submits that a certificate of social
status, if secured by playing fraud, it can be
rescinded in an appropriate proceeding by the
jurisdictional authority, his further submission
is that fraud vitiates everything and as such the
petitioner cannot be allowed or permitted to
continue to retain the benefit of a fraudulent
caste certificate.
13.16. As regards repeated inquiry and/or repeated
proceedings against the petitioner, he again
reiterates that no proceeding has attained
finality insofar as the caste certificate of the
petitioner is concerned. The appeal under
Section 4D having been withdrawn, no finding
on merits having been rendered, what is being
challenged is the order dated 20.11.2017 which
was a subject matter of the appeal, which came
to be withdrawn and as such the present appeal
filed cannot be said to be a repeated enquiry, at
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the most it can be said to be a continuation of
the same enquiry.
13.17. As regards res-judicata, he relies upon the
decision of the Privy Council in Munni Bibi vs
Trilokinath11 and submits that the principle of
res-judicata can be invoked when there is a
conflict of interest between the parties
concerned, the said conflict ought to have been
decided in the order.
13.18. Finally, in the present case the conflict being as
regards the caste certificate, no final finding
has been given in the appeal, the question of
the order of withdrawal constituting res-
judicata would not arise.
13.19. As regards delay, his submission is that though
Section 4D contemplates an appeal to be filed
within 30 days, the same would have to be
taken into consideration from the date of
knowledge of Respondent No.9. Respondent
11
AIR 1931 PC 114
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No.9 could not have been aggrieved on the
date on which the order dated 20.11.2017 was
passed but became aggrieved when the
petitioner contested the Assembly Elections
against Respondent No.9 in the year 2023 and
it is only thereafter that Respondent No.9 has
filed the appeal under Section 4D. As such, he
submits that it cannot be said that there is any
delay in disentitling the grievance of
Respondent No.9 from being considered.
13.20. On all the above grounds, he submits that the
above petition is required to be dismissed. The
petitioner be relegated to reply to the show
cause notice issued by Respondent No.2 and for
Respondent No.2 to pass necessary orders on
merits.
14. Sri.Aditya Narayan., learned counsel appearing for
respondent No.9 would submit that;
14.1. Respondent No.9 belongs to the Schedule Caste
Community and is a resident of Halhalli
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Village, Kamalnagar Taluk, Bidar District. He
was an aspirant Member of Legislative
Assembly having of contested the election to
the Aurad-B Constituency, which is reserved for
Schedule Caste.
14.2. Though the petitioner is an elected candidate
from the same constituency as a Schedule
Caste candidate, he is infact not a person
belonging to Schedule Caste. The petitioner
originally came from Maharashtra State, his
grandfather namely Bhimla Chawan and his
grandmother namely Tokubai were residents of
Tondchir Village, Udgir Taluk, Latur Distrct in
Maharashtra State. They were belonging to
Lambani (Banjara) Community, which is a De-
notified Nomadic Tribe in Maharashtra State
under Article 15(4) and 16(4) of the
Constitution of India.
14.3. The 'Lambani Caste' is not a Schedule Caste in
Maharashtra State, and therefore he is not
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entitled to the benefits that other Schedule
Castes would be entitled to. On that ground, he
submits that the petitioner belongs to the
'Lambani Caste' which is not a Schedule Caste
in Maharashtra State, and in fact being a De-
notified Tribe, the question of the petitioner
claiming to be a person belonging to a Schedule
Caste or Tribe would not arise.
14.4. On facts, his further submission is that the
grandfather of the petitioner the aforesaid
Sri.Bhimla Chawan had six children viz., Omla,
Mansingh, Munna, Hakku, Lachu and Bamla.
The petitioner is the son of aforesaid Bamla,
the said Bamla married Motibai of Gumsabai
Tanda, Bonti Village, Aurad Taluk, Bidar District
and after their marriage they were residing in
Maharashtra State. The petitioner, he submits is
a 5th son of Bamla and Motibai and was brought
up in Togari Village, Udgir Taluk, Latur District,
Maharashtra State.
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14.5. The petitioner completed his 1st standard to 12th
standard at Pratiba Devi Ashrama School
situated at Silvani Border Tanda, Deglur Taluk,
Nanded District, Maharashtra State. Therefore,
not only the petitioner's grandfather, the
petitioner's father and the petitioner were born
in Maharashtra. The petitioner was a permanent
resident of Maharashtra where he completed his
Education.
14.6. Petitioner married one Sakkubai of Gumsubai
Tanda, Bidar District. They had two children
viz., Priyanka and Pratik, who were studying in
Thane District of Maharashtra State. Petitioner
is a resident of Thane, and as per the Ration
Card No.0216469, indicates that the petitioner
is a resident of Sriyog Co-operative Society, Flat
No.302, Karegaon, Kalava, Thane.
14.7. On the basis of all the above, he submits that
the petitioner has obtained a fraudulent Caste
Certificate on the basis of the forged and
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created documents, and thereby contested and
won the elections as an 'MLA' in a reserved
Constituency, thereby depriving a deserving
person from contesting the said elections
and/or winning the same.
14.8. Referring to Sri. Shankarrao Doddi, he submits
that the said Sri. Shankarrao Doddi had
challenged the Caste Certificate issued to the
petitioner by filing a complaint before the
Hon'ble Chief Minister, Government of
Karnataka, which was referred to the ADGP,
C.R.E.Cell Bengaluru, who had in turn
conducted a detailed enquiry and submitted a
report with a specific observation that the
petitioner is a permanent resident of the State
of Maharashtra and that a false Caste
Certificate was secured by the petitioner by
suppressing the true facts.
14.9. The said report has been forwarded to the
Deputy Commissioner who in turn referred the
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matter for enquiry before the District Caste
Verification Committee. The said Committee by
referring to a birth certificate issued during the
pendency of the enquiry and produced by the
petitioner held that the Caste Certificate issued
in favour of the petitioner was correct.
14.10. Sri. Shankarrao Doddi had filed a writ petition
in WP No.58264/2017, which came to be
dismissed reserving liberty to them to prefer an
appeal under Section 4D of the Act. An appeal
having been filed in Appeal No.CR 01/2018-19.
The petitioner had filed writ petition in
WP No.201341/2018 challenging the notice
issued in the Appellate Proceedings, the writ
petition came to be disposed of vide order
dated 20.04.2018, reserving liberty to the
petitioner to raise all the objections before the
Appellate Authority.
14.11. When the matter was taken up before the
Appellate Authority, the said Sri.Shankarrao
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Doddi sought permission to withdraw the
appeal, which was allowed subject to payment
of cost of Rs.1 Lakh. His submission is that the
petitioner having failed in the writ petition in
WP No.58264/2017 challenging the Appeal filed
by the said Sri.Shankarrao Doddi , the
proceeding before the Appellate Authority has
been withdrawn thereafter, the Appeal having
been held to be maintainable. There is no
finding as such, which has been issued in terms
of the report of the C.R.E.Cell and it is for that
reason, that the Appellate Authority not being
satisfied with the enquiry conducted by DCVC
had issued a communication letter 07.05.2018
to constitute a Committee consisting of the
Chief Executive Officer, Zilla Panchayat, Deputy
Superindent of Police, C.R.E.Cell, Bidar and
Deputy Director, Social Welfare Department,
under the Chairmanship of Deputy
Commissioner and re-enquire the entire matter.
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14.12. Though such a direction has been issued by the
Appellate Authority, no action has been taken
on the same. The Committee, let alone
conduct a enquiry has not started any work and
thereafter the letter came to be withdrawn.
14.13. He submits that subsequently, one
Sri. Vijayakumar and Sri.Ravindra Swamy, have
invoked Section 4F of the Act, seeking for a
direction to hold an enquiry against the Caste
Certificate of the petitioner. The same, was not
acceded to by respondent No.3 and hence, the
said Sri.Vijayakumar and Sri.Ravindra Swamy
had filed WP No.225917/2020 and
WP No.226907/2020 which came to be allowed
vide order dated 01.02.2022, setting aside the
order of the DCVC, taking into account the
submission made by the Special Counsel, that
the enquiry as to the residential status of the
petitioner was required to be held to arrive at a
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conclusion as to whether the petitioner
belonged to Schedule Caste or not?
14.14. The matter was remitted to the DCVC to
adjudicate afresh. This order came to be
challenged by the petitioner, in Writ Appeal in
W.A.Nos.200031/2022 and WA
No.200032/2022. The Division Bench of this
Court observed that an order passed under
Section 4C of the Act, can only be challenged
under Section 4D. Any order passed under
Section 4D would be final. Therefore no
revisional jurisdiction could be exercised under
Section 4F and as such, set aside the order of
the Single Judge.
14.15. His submission now is that, the Writ Appel Court
having held that no revision is maintainable,
the appeal earlier filed having been withdrawn,
the recommendation of enquiry made by the
Appellate Authority not having been acted
upon, Respondent No.9 had no alternative but
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to challenge the earlier order of DCVC by way
of an appeal before the Appellate Authority. The
said Sri.Shankarrao Doddi having been
permitted to withdraw the appeal before the
Appellate Authority on cost of Rs.1 Lakh.
14.16. Merely because Sri.Shankarrao Doddi had
withdrawn the appeal, the petitioner who is an
aggrieved party cannot be deprived of his
remedies on technicalities. There is no finality
which can be said to have been reached insofar
as the appellate remedy is concerned and
therefore, the appeal filed by respondent No.9
being proper and correct ought to have been
proceeded with to its logical conclusion.
14.17. A notice has been issued by the Appellate
Authority in terms of Annexure-A to the Writ
Petition on 22.11.2023, the same cannot be
challenged in the present proceedings. It is for
the petitioner to reply to the said notice and
place the necessary documents. The petitioner,
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if having a good case on merits, would not have
approached this Court and be afraid of an
enquiry to be initiated. The fact that the
petitioner is objecting to the enquiry would
itself indicate that the petitioner has something
to hide and he so hiding.
14.18. A notice of enquiry has been issued, this Court
ought not to intercede in the matter. The said
notice is to be taken to its logical conclusion
upon the petitioner replying to the said notice.
In this regard he relies upon the decision of
the Hon'ble Apex Court in Executive
Engineer, Bihar State Housing Board v.
Ramesh Kumar Singh12, more particularly
para nos. 9 and 10 thereof, which are
reproduced hereunder for easy reference:
9. We heard counsel. It is common ground that
Quarter No. M/11 (Old) Adityapur, near
Jamshedpur, belongs to the Board. According to
the Board and the fourth respondent the hire-
purchase transaction is still in force, and the
ownership of the building has not been finally
12
(1996) 1 SCC 327
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transferred to the fourth respondent. The first
respondent would say that the fourth respondent
is the owner having purchased the building from
the Board. The 'basic' or fundamental fact is thus
in dispute. The third respondent is the competent
authority notified by the State Government under
the Bihar State Housing Board Act, 1982 to
initiate summary proceedings for eviction against
sub-letting, unauthorised occupation by any
person, of the premises, etc. belonging to the
Board. Annexure Ext. P-4, notice, is the one so
issued by the third respondent. The appellant
and the fourth respondent complained about the
forcible or unauthorised occupation by the first
respondent of the premises belonging to the
Board. The third respondent was competent to
initiate the proceedings under the Act if the
building still belongs to the Board and the
ownership has not vested in the fourth
respondent. It may be, that this basic fact is
denied by the first respondent when he states
that the fourth respondent is the owner having
purchased the building from the Board and that
he is a tenant under the fourth respondent. The
basic facts, on the basis of which the jurisdiction
of the third respondent to initiate/continue the
proceedings, require investigation and
adjudication. If, as pleaded by the appellant and
the fourth respondent, the Board is the owner
and the fourth respondent is the hirer, it cannot
admit of any doubt that the third respondent has
jurisdiction to initiate the proceedings as per
Annexure Ext. P-4. If that basic fact is denied by
the first respondent, that may require
investigation of disputed facts and adjudication
by the "competent authority" -- the third
respondent. Without showing cause against
Annexure Ext. P-4, notice, the first respondent
straightaway filed the writ petition in the High
Court and assailed Annexure Ext. P-4 and the
eviction proceedings. The averments in this
regard, contained in paragraph 13(H) of the
special leave petition, are not denied in the
detailed counter-affidavit filed by the first
respondent in this Court.
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10. We are concerned in this case, with the
entertainment of the writ petition against a
show-cause notice issued by a competent
statutory authority. It should be borne in mind
that there is no attack against the vires of the
statutory provisions governing the matter. No
question of infringement of any fundamental
right guaranteed by the Constitution is alleged or
proved. It cannot be said that Ext. P-4 notice is
ex facie a 'nullity' or totally "without jurisdiction"
in the traditional sense of that expression -- that
is to say, that even the commencement or
initiation of the proceedings, on the face of it and
without anything more, is totally unauthorised.
In such a case, for entertaining a writ petition
under Article 226 of the Constitution of India
against a show-cause notice, at that stage, it
should be shown that the authority has no power
or jurisdiction, to enter upon the enquiry in
question. In all other cases, it is only appropriate
that the party should avail of the alternate
remedy and show cause against the same before
the authority concerned and take up the
objection regarding jurisdiction also, then. In the
event of an adverse decision, it will certainly be
open to him to assail the same either in appeal
or revision, as the case may be, or in appropriate
cases, by invoking the jurisdiction under Article
226 of the Constitution of India.
14.19. By relying on Ramesh Kumar Singh's case,
his submission is that a show cause notice
issued by a competent statutory authority
would necessitate for the party to show cause
against the same and take up any objection
regarding jurisdiction at that stage itself unless
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such a show cause issued is wholly without any
authority or is a nullity.
14.20. He relies upon the decision of the Hon'ble Apex
Court in Union of India v. Kunisetty
Satyanarayana13, more particularly para nos.
14, 15 and 16 thereof, which are reproduced
hereunder for easy reference:
14. The reason why ordinarily a writ petition
should not be entertained against a mere show-
cause notice or charge-sheet is that at that stage
the writ petition may be held to be premature. A
mere charge-sheet or show-cause notice does
not give rise to any cause of action, because it
does not amount to an adverse order which
affects the rights of any party unless the same
has been issued by a person having no
jurisdiction to do so. It is quite possible that after
considering the reply to the show-cause notice or
after holding an enquiry the authority concerned
may drop the proceedings and/or hold that the
charges are not established. It is well settled that
a writ petition lies when some right of any party
is infringed. A mere show-cause notice or
charge-sheet does not infringe the right of
anyone. It is only when a final order imposing
some punishment or otherwise adversely
affecting a party is passed, that the said party
can be said to have any grievance.
15. Writ jurisdiction is discretionary jurisdiction
and hence such discretion under Article 226
should not ordinarily be exercised by quashing a
show-cause notice or charge-sheet.
13
(2006) 12 SCC 28
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16. No doubt, in some very rare and exceptional
cases the High Court can quash a charge-sheet
or show-cause notice if it is found to be wholly
without jurisdiction or for some other reason if it
is wholly illegal. However, ordinarily the High
Court should not interfere in such a matter.
14.21. By relying on Kunisetty's case his contention
is that a show-cause notice does not give rise
to any cause of action a mere show-cause
notice does not amount to a final order thereby
not interfering with the rights of a person and
hence the discretionary jurisdiction of this Court
under Article 226 should not be exercised as
the Petitioner is only a subject matter of a show
cause notice issued under statutory powers.
14.22. Insofar as locus standi is concerned, he submits
that respondent No.9 is aggrieved on account of
the petitioner contesting in a reserved
constituency for Schedule Caste candidate, if
not for the petitioner contesting. His
submission is that respondent No.9 would have
probably been elected. That apart, his
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submission is that respondent No.9 belonging
to the Schedule Caste community is aggrieved
by the petitioner falsely claiming to belong to
the Schedule Caste Community.
14.23. In this regard he relies upon, the decision of the
Hon'ble Apex Court in Bar Council of
Maharashtra v. M.V. Dabholkar14, more
particularly para nos. 27 and 28 thereof, which
are reproduced hereunder for easy reference:
27. The words "person aggrieved" are found in
several statutes. The meaning of the words
"person aggrieved" will have to be ascertained
with reference to the purpose and the provisions
of the statute. Sometimes, it is said that the
words "person aggrieved" correspond to the
requirement of locus standi which arises in
relation to judicial remedies.
28. Where a right of appeal to courts against an
administrative or judicial decision is created by
statute, the right is invariably confined to a
person aggrieved or a person who claims to be
aggrieved. The meaning of the words "a person
aggrieved" may vary according to the context of
the statute. One of the meanings is that a person
will be held to be aggrieved by a decision if that
decision is materially adverse to him. Normally,
one is required to establish that one has been
denied or deprived of something to which one is
legally entitled in order to make one "a person
aggrieved". Again a person is aggrieved if a legal
burden is imposed on him. The meaning of the
14
(1975) 2 SCC 702
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words "a person aggrieved" is sometimes given a
restricted meaning in certain statutes which
provide remedies for the protection of private
legal rights. The restricted meaning requires
denial or deprivation of legal rights. A more
liberal approach is required in the background of
statutes which do not deal with property rights
but deal with professional conduct and morality.
The role of the Bar Council under the Advocates
Act is comparable to the role of a guardian in
professional ethics. The words "persons
aggrieved" in Sections 37 and 38 of the Act are
of wide import and should not be subjected to a
restricted interpretation of possession or denial
of legal rights or burdens or financial interests.
The test is whether the words "person aggrieved"
include "a person who has a genuine grievance
because an order has been made which
prejudicially affects his interests". It has,
therefore, to be found out whether the Bar
Council has a grievance in respect of an order or
decision affecting the professional conduct and
etiquette.
14.24. By relying on M.V. Dabholkar's case, he
submits that the meaning of the words 'person
aggrieved' is of wide import and in the strict
sense a person may be regarded as aggrieved if
either a legal entitlement is denied or a legal
burden is imposed on the party. Neither of the
two having affected the petitioner, he cannot
be regarded as an aggrieved party by being a
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recipient of a show-cause notice and is thus
without locus to maintain this petition.
14.25. He relies upon, the decision of the Hon'ble Apex
Court in A. Subash Babu v. State of A.P.15,
more particularly para no. 25 thereof, which is
reproduced hereunder for easy reference:
25. Even otherwise, as explained earlier, the
second wife suffers several legal wrongs and/or
legal injuries when the second marriage is
treated as a nullity by the husband arbitrarily,
without recourse to the court or where a
declaration sought is granted by a competent
court. The expression "aggrieved person"
denotes an elastic and an elusive concept. It
cannot be confined within the bounds of a rigid,
exact and comprehensive definition. Its scope
and meaning depends on diverse, variable
factors such as the content and intent of the
statute of which the contravention is alleged, the
specific circumstances of the case, the nature
and extent of complainant's interest and the
nature and the extent of the prejudice or injury
suffered by the complainant. Section 494 does
not restrict the right of filing complaint to the
first wife and there is no reason to read the said
section in a restricted manner as is suggested by
the learned counsel for the appellant. Section
494 does not say that the complaint for
commission of offence under the said section can
be filed only by the wife living and not by the
woman with whom the subsequent marriage
takes place during the lifetime of the wife living
and which marriage is void by reason of its
taking place during the life of such wife. The
complaint can also be filed by the person with
whom the second marriage takes place which is
15
(2011) 7 SCC 616
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void by reason of its taking place during the life
of the first wife.
14.26. By placing reliance on A. Subash Babu's case,
his submission is that the scope of what
constitutes an aggrieved person being an
elastic and elusive concept, it is not necessary
that only a party suffering an adverse order to
a proceeding be regarded as aggrieved, even a
third party aggrieved under the elastic nature
of the term may pray for necessary relief,
Respondent No.9 though not a party before the
DCVC, but by being a bonafide member of the
SC/ST community and a contestant in the
Assembly elections to the same constituency, is
thus an aggrieved party and the appeal filed by
respondent no. 9 is with locus and the show
cause notice survives.
14.27. A decision of the Co-ordinate Bench of this
Court in Sri. Vageesh.B Vs. The Deputy
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Commissioner16, more particularly para nos. 4
and 10 thereof, which are reproduced
hereunder for easy reference:
4. The learned senior counsel representing the
petitioner would, for the present, urge a solitary
contention that the 2nd respondent/complainant
has no locus to register a complaint or call in
question the caste status of the petitioner. He is
neither a rival candidate in any employment or
for any benefit or a rival candidate in the
elections. That being the case, it is the
submission of the learned senior counsel that the
very notice issued, pursuant to the complaint, is
without jurisdiction.
10. The only issue is, whether the complainant
has locus to challenge the caste certificate of the
petitioner. The learned senior counsel for the
petitioner has placed reliance on the judgment in
the case of MS. M.N. KALAVATHI (supra) rendered
by this Court. The judgment was plainly following
a Division Bench judgment in the case of R.S.
MAHADEV v. B.R. GOPAMMA AND OTHERS4. The
said Division Bench of this Court was following
the judgment of the Apex Court in the case of
AYAAUBKHAN NOORKHAN PATHAN (supra) on
the issue of locus. The Apex Court in the case of
AYAAUBKHAN NOOR KHAN PATHAN has
elucidated the issue on locus qua the caste
certificate. The Apex Court holds that a stranger
cannot be permitted to meddle in any
proceeding, unless he satisfies the Authority that
he falls within the category of aggrieved person.
Only a person who has suffered or suffers an
injury can challenge the action is what is held by
the Apex Court. Therefore, it becomes germane
to notice the facts. Paragraph 6 of the judgment
depicts what was the issue before the Apex
Court. The 5th respondent therein was the
complainant. The complainant did not belong to
16
WP No.8087/2023
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any reserved category. As a matter of fact, the
complainant belonged to general category.
Therefore, it was contended that he has no right
or locus to challenge the certificate issued to the
appellant therein before the Apex Court. It is on
this premise, the Apex Court holds that the
complainant therein had no locus to call in
question a caste certificate issued to some other
W.A.No.1242 of 2019 dated 03-06-2021 caste,
unless he belongs to the said reserved category.
Paragraph 6 of the said judgment reads as
follows:
"6. Shri A.V. Savant, learned Senior Counsel,
appearing for the appellant has submitted that
Respondent 5 does not belong to any reserved
category, in fact, he belongs to the general
category and hence, he has no right or locus
standi to challenge the appellant's certificate.
Thus, the High Court committed an error by
directing the Scrutiny Committee to entertain the
complaint filed by Respondent 5. It has further
been submitted that, despite the directions given
by this Court, the Scrutiny Committee failed to
ensure compliance with the principles of natural
justice, as the appellant was denied the
opportunity to cross-examine witnesses, and no
order was passed with respect to his application
for recalling such witnesses for the purpose of
cross-examination, which has no doubt, resulted
in the grave miscarriage of justice. The affidavit
filed by the Scrutiny Committee did not clarify, or
make any specific statement with respect to
whether or not the appellant was permitted to
cross-examine witnesses. It further did not
clarify whether the application dated 28-2- 2012
filed by the appellant to recall witnesses for the
purpose of cross-examination, has been disposed
of. Moreover, the procedure adopted by the
Scrutiny Committee is in contravention of the
statutory requirements, as have been specified
under the Maharashtra Scheduled Castes,
Scheduled Tribes, De-Notified Tribes,
(VimuktaJatis), Nomadic Tribes, Other Backward
Classes and Special Backward Category
(Regulation of Issuance and Verification of) Caste
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Certificate Act, 2000 (Maharashtra Act 23 of 2001)
(hereinafter referred to as "the 2001 Act") and
the 2003 Rules which are framed under the 2001
Act and therefore, all proceedings hereby stand
vitiated. The appellant placed reliance upon several
documents which are all very old and, therefore,
their authenticity should not have been doubted.
The earlier report submitted by the Vigilance Cell
dated 29-12-1998 clearly stated that the traits
and characteristics of the appellant's family
matched with those of Bhil Tadvi (Scheduled
Tribes). The action of Respondent 5 is therefore
completely mala fide and is intended, solely to
harass the appellant, and the High Court
committed grave error in not deciding the issue
related to the locus standi of Respondent 5 in
relation to him filing a complaint in the first
place, as the said issue was specifically raised by
the appellant. Therefore, the present appeal
deserves to be allowed."
The Apex Court further considers locus of the
complainant therein. Paragraph 18 thereof reads
as follows:
"Locus standi of Respondent 5
18. As Respondent 5 does not belong to the
Scheduled Tribes category, the garb adopted by
him, of serving the cause of Scheduled Tribe
candidates who might have been deprived of
their legitimate right to be considered for the
post, must be considered by this Court in order
to determine whether Respondent 5, is in fact, in
a legitimate position to lay any claim before any
forum, whatsoever."
(Emphasis supplied) The Apex Court has
proceeded on the foundation that the 5th
respondent/complainant does not belong to
Scheduled Caste category; the garb adopted by
him of serving the cause of Scheduled Tribe
candidate was held to be acceptable. The Apex
Court further has held as follows:
"19. This Court in Ravi Yashwant Bhoir v. District
Collector, Raigad [(2012) 4 SCC 407] , held as
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under : (SCC pp. 434-35, paras 58-60) "58. Shri
Chintaman Raghunath Gharat, ex-President was
the complainant, thus, at the most, he could lead
evidence as a witness. He could not claim the
status of an adversarial litigant. The complainant
cannot be the party to the lis. A legal right is an
averment of entitlement arising out of law. In
fact, it is a benefit conferred upon a person by
the rule of law. Thus, a person who suffers from
legal injury can only challenge the act or
omission. There may be some harm or loss that
may not be wrongful in the eye of the law
because it may not result in injury to a legal right
or legally protected interest of the complainant
but juridically harm of this description is called
damnum sine injuria.
59. The complainant has to establish that he has
been deprived of or denied of a legal right and he
has sustained injury to any legally protected
interest. In case he has no legal peg for a
justiciable claim to hang on, he cannot be heard
as a party in a lis. A fanciful or sentimental
grievance may not be sufficient to confer a locus
standi to sue upon the individual. There must be
injuria or a legal grievance which can be
appreciated and not a stat pro rationevoluntas
reasons i.e. a claim devoid of reasons.
60. Under the garb of being a necessary party, a
person cannot be permitted to make a case as
that of general public interest. A person having a
remote interest cannot be permitted to become a
party in the lis, as the person who wants to
become a party in a case, has to establish that
he has a proprietary right which has been or is
threatened to be violated, for the reason that a
legal injury creates a remedial right in the
injured person. A person cannot be heard as a
party unless he answers the description of
aggrieved party."
20. A similar view has been reiterated by this
Court in K. Manjusree v. State of A.P. [(2008) 3 SCC
512 : (2008) 1 SCC (L&S) 841] , wherein it was
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held that the applicant before the High Court
could not challenge the appointment of a person
as she was in no way aggrieved, for she herself
could not have been selected by adopting either
method. Moreover, the appointment cannot be
challenged at a belated stage and, hence, the
petition should have been rejected by the High
Court on the grounds of delay and non-
maintainability alone.
21. In Balbir Kaur v. U.P. Secondary Education
Services Selection Board [(2008) 12 SCC 1 :
(2009) 1 SCC (L&S) 106] , it has been held that
a violation of the equality clauses enshrined in
Articles 14 and 16 of the Constitution, or
discrimination in any form, can be alleged,
provided that, the writ petitioner demonstrates a
certain appreciable disadvantage qua other
similarly situated persons. While dealing with the
similar issue, this Court in Raju RamsingVasave
v. Mahesh DeoraoBhivapurkar [(2008) 9 SCC 54
: (2008) 2 SCC (L&S) 802] held : (SCC p. 74,
para 45) "45. We must now deal with the
question of locus standi. A special leave petition
ordinarily would not have been entertained at the
instance of the appellant. Validity of appointment
or otherwise on the basis of a caste certificate
granted by a committee is ordinarily a matter
between the employer and the employee. This
Court, however, when a question is raised, can
take cognizance of a matter of such grave
importance suo motu. It may not treat the
special leave petition as a public interest
litigation, but, as a public law litigation. It is, in a
proceeding of that nature, permissible for the
court to make a detailed enquiry with regard to
the broader aspects of the matter although it
was initiated at the instance of a person having a
private interest. A deeper scrutiny can be made
so as to enable the court to find out as to
whether a party to a lis is guilty of commission of
fraud on the Constitution. If such an enquiry
subserves the greater public interest and has a
far-reaching effect on the society, in our opinion,
this Court will not shirk its responsibilities from
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doing so." (See also Manohar Joshi v. State of
Maharashtra[(2012) 3 SCC 619].)
22. In Vinoy Kumar v. State of U.P. [(2001) 4 SCC
734 : 2001 SCC (Cri) 806 : AIR 2001 SC 1739] ,
this Court held : (SCC p. 736, para 2) "2. ...
Even in cases filed in public interest, the court
can exercise the writ jurisdiction at the instance
of a third party only when it is shown that the
legal wrong or legal injury or illegal burden is
threatened and such person or determined class
of persons is, by reason of poverty, helplessness
or disability or socially or economically
disadvantaged position, unable to approach the
court for relief."
23. Thus, from the above it is evident that under
ordinary circumstances, a third person, having
no concern with the case at hand, cannot claim
to have any locus standi to raise any grievance
whatsoever. However, in exceptional
circumstances as referred to above, if the actual
persons aggrieved, because of ignorance,
illiteracy, inarticulation or poverty, are unable to
approach the court, and a person, who has no
personal agenda, or object, in relation to which,
he can grind his own axe, approaches the court,
then the court may examine the issue and in
exceptional circumstances, even if his bona fides
are doubted, but the issue raised by him, in the
opinion of the court, requires consideration, the
court may proceed suo motu, in such respect."
(Emphasis supplied)
The Apex Court was considering a case where
the complainant therein did not belong to
Scheduled Caste, he was infact belonging to
general category. The contention was, he was
espousing the cause for justice for the people
belonging to the Scheduled Caste. Therefore, the
Court holds that the complainant had no locus to
challenge a caste certificate given to a Scheduled
Caste. At paragraph 23, the Apex Court clearly
holds that in exceptional circumstances, the
Court may examine the issue even if bonafides of
the complainant are doubted, but the issue
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raised by him in the opinion of the Court would
require consideration. The petitioner, in the case
at hand, is a person belonging to Scheduled
Caste. Therefore, it cannot be said that he has
no locus to call in question a caste certificate
issued to another Scheduled Caste person, which
according to him is a fraud, and takes away the
right and interest of a genuine Scheduled Caste.
The revision filed by the second respondent is
elaborate and every minute detail is narrated,
any observation made on the contents of the
revision petition will prejudice the case of the
petitioner before the Deputy Commissioner.
14.28. By relying on Vageesh's case, he submits that
even a person not belonging to the scheduled
caste, in expectional circumstances may
impugn the caste claim of an SC/ST member in
the larger interest of justice for the SC/ST
community. This being the case, Respondent
No.9 being a Scheduled caste member himself
is without any doubt said to hold locus to file an
appeal under the Act of 1990.
14.29. As regards the contention of learned counsel for
the petitioner that the appeal filed by
respondent No.9 is barred by law of limitation,
his submission is that the period of limitation
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commences from the date of knowledge of the
order. Respondent No.9 having come to know of
all these only after he had sought to contest in
the election from the date of knowledge of
respondent No.9, the appeal which has been
filed is within time. In this regard, he relies
upon the decision of the Hon'ble Apex Court in
Madan Lal v. State of U.P.,17, more
particularly para nos. 8 and 9 thereof, which
are reproduced hereunder for easy reference:
8. The Act we are concerned with does not state
what would happen if the Forest Settlement
Officer made an order under Section 11 without
notice to the parties and in their absence. In
such a case, if the aggrieved party came to know
of the order after the expiry of the time
prescribed for presenting an appeal from the
order, would the remedy be lost for no fault of
his? It would be absurd to think so. It is a
fundamental principle of justice that a party
whose rights are affected by an order must have
notice of it. This principle is embodied in Order
20, Rule 1 of the Code of Civil Procedure; though
the Forest Settlement Officer adjudicating on the
claims under the Act is not a court, yet the
principle which is really a principle of fair play
and is applicable to all tribunals performing
judicial or quasi-judicial functions must also
apply to him. The point has been considered and
decided by this Court in Raja Harish Chandra Raj
17
(1975) 2 SCC 779
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Singh v. Deputy Land Acquisition Officer [AIR
1961 SC 1500 : (1962) 1 SCR 676] . This was a
case under the Land Acquisition Act, 1894 and
the Court was considering the question of
limitation under the proviso to Section 18 of that
Act. Under Section 18 of the Land Acquisition Act
a person who has not accepted the Collector's
award can apply to the Collector requiring him to
refer the matter for the determination of the
court. This application has to be made within six
months from the date of the Collector's award in
the case where the person interested was not
present or represented before the Collector at
the time when he made his award or had
received no notice from the Collector of the
award. Construing the expression "the date of
the award" this Court observed:
"The knowledge of the party affected by the
award, either actual or constructive, being an
essential requirement of fairplay and natural
justice the expression 'the date of the award'
used in the proviso must mean the date when
the award is either communicated to the party or
is known by him either actually or constructively.
In our opinion, therefore, it would be
unreasonable to construe the words 'from the
date of the Collector's award' used in the proviso
to Section 18 in a literal or mechanical way.
... where the rights of a person are affected by
any order and limitation is prescribed for the
enforcement of the remedy by the person
aggrieved against the said order by reference to
the making of the order must mean either actual
or constructive communication of the said order
to the party concerned".
9. The High Court in the case before us was
therefore right in holding that the impugned
order should be deemed to have been passed on
April 24, 1956 when the Forest Department came
to know of the order and "the right of appeal
granted to the Department should be determined
on that very basis".
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14.30. By relying on Madan Lal's case, he submits
that the limitation to file an appeal against any
order of a judicial or quasi-judicial body ought
to be calculated from the date of knowledge of
the award and not the date of the issuance of
the award itself. It is a fundamental principle of
fair play that a party whose rights are affected
by an order ought to have notice of it as
envisioned under Order 20 Rule 1 of the CPC.
Respondent No. 9 having gained knowledge of
the fraudulent act of the Petitioner only in the
year 2023 while contesting the Assembly
Elections, came to be aggrieved, and the order
of withdrawal came to his knowledge
subsequently. This being the case, Respondent
No. 9 is well within the period of limitation
having sought legal recourse within the time
frame from the date of knowledge of the award.
14.31. He relies upon the decision of Hon'ble Apex
Court in Alamelu Ammal vs The District
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Collector18, more particularly para no. 3
thereof, which is reproduced hereunder for easy
reference:
3. Heard the learned counsel for the appellant as
also the learned Government Advocate appearing
for the respondent. Sub-section (2) of Section 12
provides that against a decision of the
Settlement Officer under sub-section (1), the
Government may, within one year from the date
of the decision, and any person aggrieved by
such decision may, within three months from the
said date, appeal to the Tribunal, provided that
the Tribunal may, in its discretion, allow further
time not exceeding six months for the filing of
any such appeal. Section 70 which deals with the
limitation under the Act stipulates that a copy of
every decision or order in any proceeding against
which an appeal or revision is provided for under
this Act shall be communicated in such manner
as may be prescribed and for the purposes of
computing the period of limitation in respect of
any appeal or application for revision against any
decision or order, the date of communication of a
copy of the decision or order to the appellant or
applicant shall be deemed to be the date of the
decision or order. The appellant before us as also
before the Tribunal below was not a party to the
proceedings before the Settlement Tahsildar,
Salem, the original authority. Though the
appellant claims to be the wife of Sadayan alias
Sella Gounder, without disclosing the existence
of the wife, Sellayee Ammal the mother of
Sadayan alias Sella Gounder appears to have her
claim as the successor in interest of deceased
Sadayan. Coming to know of this, the wife
initiated the appeal proceedings before the
Tribunal below. It is not the case of the
respondent or even the authorities below that
any copy of the order or decision of the
Settlement Tahsildar, Salem dated 30.11.70 was
18
(1997) (I) CTC 669
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served on the present appellant. Even the copy
of the order of the original authority disclosed
that copy of the said order has been
communicated to the claimant noticed therein
viz., Sellayee Ammal as also to the Tahsildar,
Attur and the Assistant Settlement Officer and
the Settlement Officer, Salem. The appellant
appears to have moved and obtained the copy
and it is noticed in paragraph 5 of the order of
the Tribunal below that the order of the
Settlement Tahsildar dated 30.11.70 was claimed
to be available to the appellant on 15.9.83 and
that therefore there can be no infirmity in the
filing of the appeal within three months from the
date of such receipt. Normally the period of
limitation stipulated for any appeal or revision
against any proceeding would run only from the
date of knowledge or service of a copy of the
order which ever is earlier. Unless there is any
specific stipulation to the contra, Section 70 of
the Act get attracted wherein it is made clear
that a copy of every decision or order passed in
any proceeding against which an appeal or
revision is provided for shall be communicated in
such manner as may be presented and that for
purposes of computing the period of limitation in
respect of any appeal or Revision the date of
Communication of a copy of the decision or order
shall be deemed to be the date of decision or
order. This provision not only placed the issue
beyond controversy as to how the limitation has
to be computed but even that apart the claims of
the person who was not a party to the
proceedings in which an order was passed behind
his/her back cannot be rejected summarily
though no such copy of order passed in the
proceedings were also served on such person. In
view of the indisputable facts on record that no
copy of order dated 30.11.70 was served in due
course upon the appellant and that the appellant
came to secure a copy only in September, 1983,
the appeal filed before the Tribunal below cannot
be said to be beyond the period of limitation and
the Tribunal below committed an error in
misconstruing the provisions relating to the
computation of limitation for appeal before it.
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14.32. By relying on Alamelu Ammal's case, he
submits that for purposes of computing
limitation as regards an appeal or revision, the
date of communication of a copy of the order
shall construed to be the date of the decision
itself. The same would apply even to a person
who is not a party to the earlier decision and
Respondent No. 9 having satisfied this aspect is
hence not barred by limitation.
14.33. He relies upon the decision of Hon'ble Apex
Court in P. Sundarmurthy vs. The State of
Government19, more particularly para no. 7
thereof, which is reproduced hereunder for easy
reference:
7. On the first contention, it is to be pointed out
that the appeal filed by the respondents 4 to 8
under section 69[1] of the Act was not
entertained on the ground that the appeal was
filed belatedly. As pointed out earlier, the
respondents 4 to 8 were not the respondents in
OA. No. 5/2008 filed by the writ petitioner before
the 3rd respondent herein. In fact, there were no
respondents in the said Original Application.
Therefore, the respondents 4 to 8 being not
19
2015 SCC Online Mad 9271
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parties to the Original Application, cannot be
blamed for approaching the authority after they
came to know the order. Therefore, when the
private respondents stated that they came to
know about the order only subsequently, the
Commissioner took a narrow and pedantic view
stating that it is strange for the respondents 4 to
8 to contend that they came to know of the order
only in September 2011 when renovation of the
temple was going on from 2008. One important
fact which the Commissioner failed to take note
of is that the petitioner should have established
that the private respondents 4 to 8 had the
knowledge of the order passed in OA. No. 5/2008
on the date when it was pronounced or
subsequently thereafter. Having failed to do so,
the question of objecting the appeal petition filed
by the respondents 4 to 8 on the ground that it is
belated, is a plea that should have been rejected.
There is no material placed before the
Commissioner by the writ petitioner stating that
the respondents 4 to 8 had knowledge of the
order in OA. No. 5/2008 dated 25.01.2011 prior
to September 2011. Therefore, the limitation
shall be computed only from the date of
knowledge which has to be accepted as
September 2011. If that is taken into
consideration, then there is no delay and the
appeal petition filed by respondents 4 to 8 was
perfectly well within the period of limitation.
However, while passing the order, the
Commissioner did not take into consideration
that vital aspect and this error committed by the
Commissioner continued with the Government
when they considered the revision filed under
section 114 of the Act, by passing the order
dated 18.04.2013. Only on review, the Revisional
Authority came to understand the facts and
allowed the revision.
14.34. By relying on P. Sundarmurthy's case, his
submission is that although a third party to the
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earlier order files an appeal, and the appellant
takes the contention that the date of his
knowledge of the order was much later than the
date of the order, it is for the party contending
that he/she is barred by limitation to establish
that the private party had knowledge of the
order on the date of its pronouncement itself or
subsequently thereafter. Hence, it is for the
Petitioner to prove that Respondent No. 9 had
knowledge of the order of withdrawal much
earlier itself.
14.35. He relies upon the decision of Hon'ble Apex
Court in State of Punjab v. Qaisar Jehan
Begum20, more particularly para no. 4 thereof,
which is reproduced hereunder for easy
reference:
4. As to the second part of clause (b) of the
proviso, the true scope and effect thereof was
considered by this court in Raja Harish Chandra's
case. It was there observed that a literal and
mechanical construction of the words "six
months from the date of the Collector's award"
20
1963 SCC OnLine SC 54
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occurring in the second part of clause (b) of the
proviso would not be appropriate and "the
knowledge of the party affected by the award,
either actual or constructive, being an essential
requirement of fair play and natural justice, the
expression ... used in the proviso must mean the
date when the award is either communicated to
the party or is known by him either actually or
constructively". Admittedly the award was never
communicated to the respondents. Therefore the
question before us boils down to this. When did
the respondents know the award either actually
or constructively? Learned counsel for the
appellant has placed very strong reliance on the
petition which the respondents made for interim
payment of compensation on December 24,
1954. He has pointed out that the learned
Subordinate Judge relied on this petition as
showing the respondents' date of knowledge and
there are no reasons why we should take a
different view. It seems clear, to us that the ratio
of the decision in Raja Harish Chandra case
(supra) is that the party affected by the award
must know it, actually or constructively, and the
period of six months will run from the date of
that knowledge. Now knowledge of the award
does not mean a mere knowledge of the fact that
an award has been made. The knowledge must
relate to the essential contents of the award.
These contents may be known either actually or
constructively. If the award is communicated to a
party under Section 12(2) of the Act, the party
must be obviously fixed with knowledge of the
contents of the award whether he reads it or not.
Similarly when a party is present in court either
personally or through his representative when
the award is made by the Collector, it must be
presumed that he knows the contents of the
award. Having regard to the scheme of the Act
we think that knowledge of the award must
mean knowledge of the essential contents of the
award. Looked at from that point of view, we do
not think that it can be inferred from the petition
dated December 24, 1954 that the respondents
had knowledge of the award. One of the
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respondents gave evidence before the learned
Subordinate Judge and she said:
"The application marked as Ex. D-1 was given by
me but the amount of compensation was, not
known to me, nor did I know about acquisition of
the land. Chaudhari Mohd. Sadiq, my Karinda
had told me on the day I filed the said
application that the land had been acquired by
the Government."
This evidence was not seriously contradicted on
behalf of the appellant and the learned
Subordinate Judge did not reject it. It is worthy
of the note that before the Collector also the
appellant did not seriously challenge the
statement of the respondents that they came to
know of the award on July 22, 1955 the date on
which the compensation was paid. On the reply
which the appellant filed before the learned
Subordinate Judge there was no contradiction of
the averment that the respondents had come to
know of the award on July 22, 1955. That being
the position we have come to the conclusion that
the date of knowledge in this case was July 22,
1955. The application for a reference was clearly
made within six months from that date and was
not therefore barred by time within the meaning
of the second part of clause (b) of the proviso to
Section 18 of the Act.
14.36. By relying on Qaisar Jehan Begum's case, he
submits that a party affected by an award must
have knowledge of it, either, actually or
constructively. 'Knowledge' does not mean
mere knowing of the fact that an award has
been passed but it also extends to knowing the
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essential contents of such award. Therefore any
reference as regards the knowledge of an
award should also include the essential
contents of it. In that view, Respondent No.9
was clearly unaware of the essential contents of
the award until a later stage.
14.37. Respondent No.9 did not know of any of the
proceedings and the details thereof, it is only
after coming to know of the dismissal of the
appeal on account of it being withdrawn by
imposing Rs.1 lakh as cost and directing a
enquiry that respondent No.9 became aware of
the fact that there is no final adjudication of the
lis relating to the Caste Certificate of the
petitioner and as such respondent No.9 has
filed the afoaresaid appeal.
14.38. His submission is also that the correctness of
the DCVC order has never been adjudicated.
The writ petition which had been filed was
disposed of directing the petitioner therein to
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approach the Appellate Authority. On the appeal
being filed before the Appellate Authority, the
petitioner had challenged the notice issued
therein, which came to be rejected by this
Court and the matter being taken up by the
Appellate Authority, Sri.Shankarrao Doddi had
sought to withdraw the proceedings. Though
the withdrawal was permitted, an enquiry had
been ordered, the enquiry was not made.
14.39. A Revision Petition had been filed, though the
Single Judge had held that revision was
maintainable, the Division Bench set aside the
order, thus he submits that in none of the
matters, there is any finality which has been
arrived at, hence the question of Doctrine of
Merger being applicable would not arise, the
matter is still pending and required to be
adjudicated by the Appellate Authority. In this
regard, he relies upon the decision of Hon'ble
Apex Court in Kaikhosrou (Chick) Kavasji
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Framji v. Union of India21, more particularly
para nos. 53, 54 and 55 thereof, which are
reproudued hereunder for easy reference:
53. In our view, the principle of merger is fairly
well settled. For merger to operate, the superior
court must go into the merits of the issues
decided by the subordinate court and record
finding(s) one way or other on its merits. If this
is not done by the superior court, a plea of
merger has no application in such a case and the
order of the subordinate court would continue to
hold the field (see S. Shanmugavel Nadar v.
State of T.N. [S. Shanmugavel Nadar v. State of
T.N., (2002) 8 SCC 361] ).
54. In our view, this Court while disposing of the
appeals by its order dated 4-8-1998 [Union of
India v. P.T. Anklesaria, (2014) 14 SCC 204, 211
(footnote 6)] , did not go into the merits of the
various contentions which were decided by the
High Court in its order dated 6-2-1979 and
disposed of the appeal on the statement made by
the respondents through the Solicitor General
that Respondent 1 (Union of India) would take
recourse to the remedy of the civil court by filing
a civil suit.
55. Indeed, in the light of such statement made
by the respondents (who were appellants in the
appeal), which resulted in disposal of their
appeal, the respondents themselves did not call
upon this Court to examine the merits of the
issues raised by them in their appeals. In such a
situation, there was no occasion for this Court to
apply the mind to the merits much less to record
any finding on any of the issues arising in the
appeal. In this view of the matter, the principle
of merger could not operate.
21
(2019) 20 SCC 705
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14.40. By relying on Kaikhosrou's case, his
submission is that the principle of merger would
not apply in the event the superior court does
not deal with the merits of the issues dealt with
by the subordinate court. In this case, the
Hon'ble Apex Court having plainly dismissed the
matter without interfering into the merits and
issues dealt with by the High Court, the
doctrine of merger would not apply and thereby
Respondent No. 9's appeal would survive.
14.41. As regards the further contention that the
Appellate Authority had become 'Functus
Officio' on the withdrawal of the appeal, he
relies upon the decision of Hon'ble Apex Court
in SBI v. S.N. Goyal22, more particularly para
nos. 25, 26, 27, 28, 29 and 30 thereof, which
are reproduced hereunder for easy reference:
25. The learned counsel for the respondent
contended that the appointing authority became
functus officio once it passed the order dated 18-
1-1995 agreeing with the penalty proposed by
22
(2008) 8 SCC 92
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the disciplinary authority and cannot thereafter
revise/review/modify the said order. Reliance
was placed on the English decision V.G.M.
Holdings Ltd., Re [(1941) 3 All ER 417] wherein
it was held that once a Judge has made an order
which has been passed and entered, he becomes
functus officio and cannot thereafter vary the
terms of his order and only a higher court,
tribunal can vary it. What is significant is that
decision does not say that the Judge becomes
functus officio when he passes the order, but
only when the order passed is "entered". The
term "entering judgment" in English law refers to
the procedure in civil courts in which a judgment
is formally recorded by the court after it has
been given.
26. It is true that once an authority exercising
quasi-judicial power takes a final decision, it
cannot review its decision unless the relevant
statute or rules permit such review. But the
question is as to at what stage an authority
becomes functus officio in regard to an order
made by him. P. Ramanatha Aiyar's Advanced
Law Lexicon (3rd Edn., Vol. 2, pp. 1946-47)
gives the following illustrative definition of the
term "functus officio":
"Thus a judge, when he has decided a
question brought before him, is functus officio,
and cannot review his own decision."
27.Black's Law Dictionary (6th Edn., p. 673)
gives its meaning as follows:
"Having fulfilled the function, discharged the
office, or accomplished the purpose, and
therefore of no further force or authority."
28. We may first refer to the position with
reference to civil courts. Order 20 of the Code of
Civil Procedure deals with judgment and decree.
Rule 1 explains when a judgment is pronounced.
Sub-rule (1) provides that the court, after the
case has been heard, shall pronounce judgment
in an open court either at once, or as soon
thereafter as may be practicable, and when the
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judgment is to be pronounced on some future
day, the court shall fix a day for that purpose of
which due notice shall be given to the parties or
their pleaders. Sub-rule (3) provides that the
judgment may be pronounced by dictation in an
open court to a shorthand writer [if the Judge is
specially empowered (sic by the High Court) in
this behalf]. The proviso thereto provides that
where the judgment is pronounced by dictation
in open court, the transcript of the judgment so
pronounced shall, after making such corrections
as may be necessary, be signed by the Judge,
bear the date on which it was pronounced and
form a part of the record. Rule 3 provides that
the judgment shall be dated and signed by the
Judge in open court at the time of pronouncing it
and when once signed, shall not afterwards be
altered or added to save as provided by Section
152 or on review. Thus, where a judgment is
reserved, mere dictation does not amount to
pronouncement, but where the judgment is
dictated in open court, that itself amounts to
pronouncement. But even after such
pronouncement by open court dictation, the
Judge can make corrections before signing and
dating the judgment. Therefore, a Judge
becomes functus officio when he pronounces,
signs and dates the judgment (subject to Section
152 and power of review). The position is
different with reference to quasi-judicial
authorities. While some quasi-judicial tribunals
fix a day for pronouncement and pronounce their
orders on the day fixed, many quasi-judicial
authorities do not pronounce their orders. Some
publish or notify their orders. Some prepare and
sign the orders and communicate the same to
the party concerned. A quasi-judicial authority
will become functus officio only when its order is
pronounced, or published/notified or
communicated (put in the course of
transmission) to the party concerned. When an
order is made in an office noting in a file but is
not pronounced, published or communicated,
nothing prevents the authority from correcting it
or altering it for valid reasons. But once the
order is pronounced or published or notified or
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communicated, the authority will become functus
officio. The order dated 18-1-1995 made on an
office note, was neither pronounced, nor
published/notified nor communicated. Therefore,
it cannot be said that the appointing authority
became functus officio when it signed the note
dated 18-1-1995.
29. Let us next consider whether the decision
taken on 18-1-1995 was a final decision. A
careful examination shows that the order dated
18-1-1995 was intended only to be tentative and
not final. Firstly, the said decision was not
communicated to the respondent, nor was any
letter or order issued to the respondent imposing
the penalty mentioned in the order dated 18-1-
1995. Secondly, the appointing authority by
letter dated 2-2-1995 (Ext. P-23) informed the
Chief Vigilance Officer of the Bank about the
enquiry against the respondent, his decision
accepting the findings of the enquiry officer, and
the proposal to show leniency by imposing only a
punishment of reduction of pay by four stages.
The Chief Vigilance Officer sent a reply dated 7-
2-1995 (Ext. D-2) wherein he observed that "by
pocketing the money of the customers Shri Goyal
has exposed the Bank's faith reposed in him" and
there was no ground for showing leniency. He
also expressed the view that the respondent
deserved a more severe punishment and
requested the appointing authority to re-examine
whether the respondent should be continued in
the post. Thereafter the disciplinary authority
reconsidered the entire issue again and put up
another note dated 23-3-1995/2-5-1995 to the
appointing authority proposing the punishment of
removal from service. After considering the said
recommendation, the appointing authority
passed the following order on the said note on 3-
5-1995:
"On a dispassionate and objective evaluation
of the facts, circumstances of the case, inquiry
proceedings and evidence available, I concur
with the recommendations of the disciplinary
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authority mentioned at Serial No. 4 of the note
and have come to the conclusion that the penalty
of 'removal from Bank's service' proposed to be
inflicted on Shri S.N. Goyal, Officer JMGS I, is
just and appropriate and I, therefore, order
imposition of this penalty on the official."
30. It is thus clear that on 18-1-1995, the
appointing authority had only tentatively
approved the proposal of the disciplinary
authority that a lenient view be taken by
imposing a penalty of reducing the pay by four
stages in the timescale; and that on 3-5-1995, a
final decision was taken in regard to the penalty
and that final order was communicated to the
respondent as per letter dated 30-6-1995.
Therefore, the contention that the appointing
authority had earlier passed a final order on 18-
1-1995 and had become functus officio and
therefore, it could not change the said order
dated 18-1-1995 is liable to be rejected.
14.42. By relying on S.N. Goyal's case, he submits
that the decision of a Court is considered to be
functus officio only upon the due entering of the
judgement/order. Moreover, the said
judgement/ order ought to have decided upon a
question brought before it, Respondent No.2-
authority having ordered withdrawal with costs,
has not gone into the root of the matter and
the merits involved therein, hence it cannot be
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regarded as functus officio and is capable to
decide on the appeal.
14.43. Respondent No.9 has not filed an appeal under
Section 4D of the 1990 Act. In terms of
Section 6B of the 1990 Act the jurisdiction of
the Civil Court is ousted. In this regard, he
relies upon the decision of the Hon'ble Apex
Court in Hari Prasad Mulshanker Trivedi v.
V.B. Raju23, more particularly para nos. 24,
30, 31 and 32 thereof, which are reproudued
hereunder for easy reference;
24. "Supremacy of law demands that there shall
be an opportunity to have some court to decide
whether an erroneous rule of law was applied
and whether the proceedings in which facts were
adjudicated were conducted regularly". This
remark was made in St. Joseph Stock Yards Co.
v. United States [298 US 38] by Justice Brandeis
in his dissenting opinion. In that case a public
utility was challenging a rate order as
confiscatory. "It is entirely clear that the remark
is not the law with respect to much
administrative action. The remark may be the
law with respect to some administrative action,
but if so, that action is not clearly identifiable. [
See Kenneth Culp Davis "Administrative Law
Treatise", Vol. 4, p. 98] But the question still
remains whether the Brandeis remark has
validity for some types of administrative action,
23
(1974) 3 SCC 415
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and if so, what types. On this question the
opinions are singularly unhelpful. One may
surmise that the Brandeis remark has validity in
the context in which it was uttered -- a public
utility rate case in which confiscation was
claimed. [ Ibid, p. 102] Article 327 gives full
power to Parliament subject to the provisions of
the Constitution to make laws with respect to all
matters relating to or in connection with
elections including the preparation of electoral
rolls. It was, therefore, open to Parliament to
prescribe the mode of the preparation of the
electoral roll and say that it is not liable to be
challenged except in the manner provided.
Parliament was, therefore, competent, subject to
the provisions of the Constitution, to exclude the
jurisdiction of the civil court or the tribunal trying
an election petition to go into the question
whether the name of any person has been
entered therein illegally. The right to stand for
election is a statutory right and the statute can
therefore regulate the manner in which the right
has to be enforced or the remedy for enforcing it.
We think that the 1950 Act provides a complete
code so far as the preparation and maintenance
of electoral rolls are concerned. The Act enacts a
complete machinery to enquire into claims and
objections as regards registration as voter and
for appeals from the decision of the registering
officer (see Sections 21 to 24 of the 1950 Act
both inclusive). Elaborate rules have also been
made for inquiry into claims to be registered as
voters and for considering and disposing of
objections thereto (see Rules 12 to 24 of the
Registration of Electoral Rules). The definition of
the word "elector" in Section 2(1)(e) of the 1951
Act would indicate that a person whose name is
actually entered in the electoral roll for the time
being and who is not subject to any of the
disqualifications in Section 16 would be an
elector. Any person who is a citizen of India and
who has attained the age as prescribed by law,
subject to the minimum as provided in Article
326, is entitled to be registered as a voter in the
roll of electors. This is the positive way of
expressing eligibility for registration as a voter.
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He should not also be subject to any of the
disqualifications prescribed by Parliament by law
on the grounds mentioned in the article. The
Parliament has prescribed in Section 16 of the
1950 Act the disqualifications.
30. The requirement of ordinary residence as a
condition for registration in the electoral rolls is
one created by Parliament by Section 19 of the
1950 Act, and as we said, we see no reason why
Parliament should have no power to entrust to an
authority other than a court or a tribunal trying
an election petition the exclusive power to decide
the matter finally. We have already referred to
the observation of this Court in Kabul Singh case
that Sections 14 to 24 of the 1950 Act are
integrated provisions which form a complete
code in the matter of preparation and
maintenance of electoral rolls. Section 30 of that
Act makes it clear that civil courts have no power
to adjudicate the question. In these
circumstances we do not think that it would be
incongruous to infer an implied ouster of the
jurisdiction of the Court trying an election
petition to go into the question. That inference is
strengthened by the fact that under Section
100(1)(d)(iv) of the 1951 Act the result of the
election must have been materially affected by
non-compliance with the provisions of the
Constitution or of that Act or of the rules, orders
made under that Act in order that High Court
may declare an election to be void. Non-
compliance with the provisions of Section 19 of
the 1950 Act cannot furnish a ground for
declaring an election void under that clause.
31. We, therefore, return to the question
whether these respondents were not qualified or
were disqualified to be chosen to fill the seat
under the Constitution or the 1950 Act or the
1951 Act. As we said, there was no allegation
that they were disqualified under Section 16 of
the 1950 Act. Nor was there any ground taken
that they were not qualified in the sense of their
being not citizens or under the age as required.
As their names were entered in the electoral roll
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and as they did not suffer from any of the
disqualifications mentioned in Section 16 in of
the 1950 Act, they were electors within the
definition of the term in Section 2(1)(e) of the
1951 Act. They were, therefore, qualified to be
chosen as candidates under Section 3 of the
1951 Act.
32. We think that the intention of the Parliament
to oust the jurisdiction of the Court trying an
election petition to go into the question whether
a person is ordinarily resident in the constituency
in the electoral roll of which his name is entered
is manifest from the scheme of 1950 and the
1951 Acts. It would defeat the object of the 1950
Act if the question whether a person was
ordinarily resident in a constituency were to be
tried afresh in a court or tribunal, trying an
election petition.
14.44. By placing reliance on Hari Prasad
Mulshankar Trivedi's case, his submission is
that it is open for the legislature to grant or
restrict the jurisdiction of a body to adjudicate
on certain matters. Respondent No.2 being a
special body under the Act of 1990 to
adjudicate on matters relating to the caste
status of SC/ST persons as an appellate body,
is hence the right forum to decide on the
matter as appealed for by Respondent No. 9.
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14.45. He relies upon the decision of the Hon'ble Apex
Court in Bhagwati Prasad Dixit v. Rajeev
Gandhi24, more particularly para nos. 11 and
12 thereof, which are reproduced hereunder for
easy reference:
11. These cases clearly lay down that when the
matter falls within Section 9(2) of the Citizenship
Act, 1955, all other provisions of law are
excluded. The authority prescribed under the
Citizenship Act, 1955 alone can decide the
questions arising under Section 9(2) and the
rules of evidence which should govern that
decision shall be those prescribed for the purpose
under that Act. The High Court however relied on
two decisions of this Court in Arun Kumar Bose v.
Mohd. Furkan Ansari [(1984) 1 SCC 91 : AIR
1983 SC 1311 : (1984) 1 SCR 118] and the
decision in Surinder Singh v. Hardial Singh
[(1985) 1 SCC 91 : (1985) 1 SCR 1059] (to
reach the conclusion that by virtue of Article 329
of the Constitution all questions arising in an
election petition were exclusively triable in an
election petition and by no other authority). In
those decisions the Supreme Court was generally
concerned with the power of the High Court to
try all issues arising in an election petition in
accordance with the provisions of the
Representation of the People Act, 1951. It is no
doubt true that Article 329(b) of the Constitution
provides that notwithstanding anything in the
Constitution no election to either House of
Parliament or to the House or either House of the
legislature of a State shall be called in question
except by an election petition presented to such
authority and in such manner as may be
provided for by or under any law made by the
legislature. It is also true that one of the grounds
24
(1986) 4 SCC 78
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on which an election of a candidate can be set
aside in the course of an election petition under
the Representation of the People Act, 1951 is
that the candidate was not a citizen of India at
the relevant time. A man may not be a citizen of
India because he has not acquired the citizenship
of India at all or having acquired he may have
lost it by voluntarily acquiring the citizenship of
another country as provided in Section 9(1) of
the Citizenship Act, 1955. For purposes of
deciding the question arising under Section 9(1)
of that Act, the Central Government by virtue of
the power conferred on it by Section 9(2) has
been given an exclusive power to determine in
accordance with the rules of evidence provided
for the purpose whether a person has acquired
the citizenship of another country. It follows that
when once a person is admitted or held to be a
citizen of India, unless there is a decision of the
Central Government under Section 9(2) of the
Citizenship Act, 1955 that he has acquired the
citizenship of a foreign country, he should be
presumed to be an Indian citizen. Section 9 of
the Citizenship Act, 1955 is a complete code as
regards the termination of Indian citizenship on
the acquisition of the citizenship of a foreign
country. Sub-clause (d) of clause (1) of Article
102 of the Constitution provides that a person
shall be disqualified for being chosen as and for
being a member of either House of Parliament (i)
if he is not a citizen of India, (ii) or has
voluntarily acquired the citizenship of a foreign
State or (iii) is under any acknowledgement of
allegiance or adherence to a foreign State. We
are concerned here with a case falling under
clause (ii) and that question has to be decided by
virtue of Article 11 of the Constitution and
Section 9(2) of the Citizenship Act, 1955 by the
Central Government only. The policy behind
Section 9(2) appears to be that the right of
citizenship of the person who is admittedly an
Indian citizen should not be exposed to attack in
all forums in the country, but should be decided
by one authority in accordance with the
prescribed rules and that every other court or
authority would have to act only on the basis of
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the decision of the prescribed authority in that
behalf and on no other basis. That being the
mandate of the law, even the High Court trying
an election petition can declare an Indian citizen
as having acquired the citizenship of a foreign
State only on the basis of a declaration made by
the Central Government. If such a declaration
made by the Central Government is produced
before a High Court trying an election petition
the High Court has to give effect to it. If such a
declaration is not forthcoming, the High Court
should proceed on the ground that the candidate
concerned has not ceased to be an Indian citizen.
It cannot independently hold an enquiry into that
question on its own. This is also the view of the
Calcutta High Court in Birendranath Chatterjee v.
State of W.B. [AIR 1969 Cal 386] though the
question there did not involve Article 329 of the
Constitution. What we have said now may not
apply to the other two types of disqualifications
referred to in sub-clause (d) of clause (1) of
Article 102 of the Constitution and we express no
opinion on those issues. The view we have taken
on the primacy of Section 9(2) of the Citizenship
Act, 1955 does not derogate from the plenary
powers of the High Court in trying an election
petition under the Representation of the People
Act, 1951 but only leads to a harmonious way in
which the two types of issues, namely, the issues
relating to the validity of an election to either
House of Parliament or of a State legislature and
the issues relating to loss of Indian citizenship on
the acquisition of the citizenship of a foreign
country which are both vital can be resolved.
12. In the circumstances it is difficult to agree
with the view of the High Court that when a
question whether a person has acquired the
citizenship of another country arises before the
High Court in an election petition filed under the
Representation of the People Act, 1951 it would
have jurisdiction to decide the said question
notwithstanding the exclusive jurisdiction
conferred on the authority prescribed under
Section 9(2) of the Citizenship Act, 1955 to
decide the question. Whatever may be the
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proceeding in which the question of loss of
citizenship of a person arises for consideration,
the decision in that proceeding on the said
question should depend upon the decision of the
authority constituted for determining the said
question under Section 9(2) of the Citizenship
Act, 1955.
14.46. By relying on Bhagwati Prasad Dixit's case,
he submits that even in the event of an Election
Petition being preferred, the Court would still be
guided by the authority constituted under the
1990 Act to determine matters on the said
question as regards the validity of a caste
certificate.
14.47. The 1990 Act provides a comprehensive
framework, and the validity or otherwise of a
caste certificate is required to be determined
under the provisions of the 1990 Act. In this
regard, he relies upon the decision of the
Hon'ble Apex Court in Durga Singh v. M.
Lakshman Yadav 200325, more particularly
25
SCC OnLine AP 533
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para no. 6 thereof, which is reproudued
hereunder for easy reference:
6. A perusal of the voters' list and the Caste
Certificate issued by the Mandal Revenue Officer
disclose that the House Number is correct, name
of the returned candidate and the father's name
also correct but in the voters' list the names
were shown in abbreviated form but whereas in
the Caste Certificate the surname and full names
are mentioned. However, it is not within the
scope and ambit of the Election Tribunal to go
into the legality and validity of the said Caste
Certificate. As long as the petitioner does not
take steps before the appropriate forum for
declaring that the returned candidate is not a
Backward Class candidate, the said question as
to whether the returned candidate is not a
Backward Class cannot be gone into by the
Election Tribunal and the said issue cannot be
decided as it is not one of the grounds to set
aside the election of the returned candidate. The
issue raised in this Civil Revision Petition is
squarely covered by a judgment of this Court in
Rajendra Pratap Bhanj Deo v. Regu Mahesh @
Regu Maheshwar Rao, 2003 (2) ALD 304,
rendered by my learned Brother L. Narasimha
Reddy, J. while dealing with the similar
contentions, as held in Paras 24, 25, 26 and 27
as follows:
Para 24. The contention of the petitioner is that
the 1st respondent does not belong to Scheduled
Tribe. The allegation of the petitioner on this
ground turns around the fact as to whether the
1st respondent holds a valid Caste Certificate to
the effect that he belongs to Scheduled Tribe
community. It is true that it is permissible in an
Election Petition to verify as to whether a
particular candidate fits into the status, which he
claims, to contest as a candidate. However,
where the decision as to the status of a
candidate is left or reserved to be decided by a
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special enactment, the procedure prescribed
thereunder needs to be followed.
Para 25. In this context, it needs to be observed
that the A.P.State Legislature has enacted the
State Act of 16 of 1993 to regulate the issue of
Community Certificate relating to persons
belonging to Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes
and Backward Classes and matters connected
thereof or incidental thereto. Section 5 of the
State Act provides for cancellation of the
certificates. The proceedings for cancellation can
be initiated either suo motu by the competent
authority or on a written application by any
person. Section 6 places the burden on the
person claiming the social status. In the event of
the refusal to issue a Caste Certificate under
Section 5 of the State Act, an appeal is provided
under Section 7. A further revision is provided to
the Government under Section 8. The jurisdiction
of the Civil Court is barred under Section 17.
Section 19 confers overriding effect on the Act in
the event of an inconsistency with any other law
for the time being in force. Under Section 21, the
Certificate issued by any competent authority
before the commencement of the Act, is
conferred legitimacy, unless it is cancelled under
the provisions of the State Act.
Para 26. It is not as if the petitioner was not
aware of these provisions of the State Act. As a
matter of fact, in the Election Petition, reference
was made to a show-cause notice said to have
been issued to the 1st respondent under the
provisions of the State Act. As long as Caste
Certificate issued to the 1st respondent is not
cancelled or varied, it cannot be said that he
does not or ceased to belong to ST community. If
an independent enquiry into the validity or
otherwise of the Caste Certificate issued to the
1st respondent is to be undertaken in this
Election Petition, it would result in parallel
exercise, one by the machinery provided for
under the Act and the other by this Court. While
proceedings under the State Act by the
competent authority therein confirms to that Act
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an enquiry by this Court would be at the teeth of
several provisions of the State Act.
Para 27. It is true that in the State Act, the
purport of the said certificates is said to be for
the benefit of admission into educational
institutions, public employment, and the
elections to the local authorities and co-operative
institutions. However, it is not the case of the
petitioner that any other law governs the
issuance of certificates conferring social status
for the purpose of election under the RP Act.
Once the competent authority under the State
Act is in seisin of the matter, property and
harmonious interpretation of the provisions,
demand that this Court gives the way for
machinery provided for under the State Act to
take its course. This would accord with the
principle that the special will prevail over the
general. Though this may become relevant, if the
trial of the petitioner is undertaken, still, it may
throw light on the existence or otherwise of
cause of action."
14.48. By relying on Durga Singh's case, he submits
that it is not within the scope of an Election
Tribunal to go into matters of legality and
validity of the caste certificate of a returned
candidate and the same is not a ground to set
aside the election of a returned candidate. The
Act of 1990 providing a comprehensive
framework to ascertain the validity or otherwise
of a caste certificate and being the statutory
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backbone for the issuance of a caste certificate
itself, is thus a special legislation. This would
then attract the principle that 'special will
prevail over the general'. Hence, the rightful
legal recourse for Respondent No.9 would be by
way of an appeal under the Act of 1990 and not
an election petition as contended by the
Petitioner.
14.49. Though an election petition could also be filed
challenging the result of the elections, he
submitted that even if such a proceeding is
filed, the Election Tribunal would have to await
the decision of the DCVC. So, the matter would
have to be referred by the Election Tribunal to
the DCVC anyhow.
14.50. In this regard, he relies upon the decision of
this Court in Sri. Shiddalingappa Mallappa
Abbigeri, vs. The Deputy Commissioner26,
26
W.P. NO. 105645 OF 2023
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more particularly para no. 12 thereof, which is
reproduced hereunder for easy reference:
12. In my considered opinion, the Court siezed
of the election petition, where a caste certificate
is under challenge, ought to have suspended the
said proceedings directing the parties to
approach the District Caste Verification
Committee for necessary orders and on the
orders being received, the proceedings in the
election petition could have been continued as
has been held by the Hon'ble Apex Court in
Bharti Reddy v. State of Karnataka. Since the
election petition has been dismissed and appeal
being pending, respondent No.4 could place the
same before the Court seized of the first appeal
for necessary orders. In that view of the matter,
I pass the following:
ORDER
i. Writ petition is allowed.
ii. A certiorari is issued, the impugned order bearing No.24351/VER:11/11/2023 dated AIR 2018 SC (SUPP) 1057 NC: 2024:KHC-D:2353 07.09.2023 passed by respondent No.1 vide Annexure-K is quashed. Liberty is however reserved to respondent No.4 as aforesaid. iii. In view of disposal of the petition, pending interlocutory applications, if any, do not survive for consideration and are disposed of accordingly.
14.51. By relying on Shiddalingappa Mallappa Abbigeri's case, he submits that a Court adjudicating on an Election Petition impugning the caste certificate of the returning candidate,
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NC: 2025:KHC-K:1739 WP No. 203394 of 2023 ought to suspend the proceedings and direct the parties to approach the DCVC for necessary orders as regards the caste status of the candidate, upon which an election petition may further continue. In the event of no such election petition having been filed, the party concerned may directly approach the statutory body seized of the first appeal and Respondent No. 9 has exactly done so by filing for an appeal under the Act of 1990.
14.52. Insofar as appeal is concerned, his submission is also that even if a person who was not party to the proceeding can be permitted to file an appeal and in this regard, he relies upon the decision of the Hon'ble Apex Court in Jatan Kumar Golcha v. Golcha Properties (P) Ltd.,27 more particularly para no. 3 thereof, which is reproduced hereunder for easy reference:
27
(1970) 3 SCC 573
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3. In the order of the High Court reference has been made to Rule 139 of the Companies (Court) Rules, 1959, and it has been pointed out that since the appellant had not appeared before the Company Judge she was not entitled to maintain the appeal. It was conceded that no notice had ever been sent to her either by the Official Liquidator or the Company Judge before the order appealed against relating to appellant's property was made. The High Court was of the view that the only remedy of the appellant was by way of a suit after obtaining leave of the Company Judge under Section 446 of the Act. Now an appeal lies under Section 483 of the Act from any order made or decision given in the matter of winding up of a company by the court and it lies to the same court to which, in the same manner in which, and subject to the same conditions under which, appeals lie from any order or decision of the Court in cases within its ordinary jurisdiction. There can be no manner of doubt that an appeal was competent against the order made by the Company Judge on July 21, 1969, in view of the terms of Section 483. The only question is whether because the Official Liquidator failed to discharge his duties properly by having a notice issued to the appellant, whose rights were directly affected by the order proposed to be made, the appellant was debarred from filing the appeal. In our opinion apart from Rule 130 to which reference has been made by the High Court the Official Liquidator as well as the learned Company Judge were bound by the rules of natural justice to issue a notice to the appellant and hear her before making the order appealed against. If there was default on their part not following the correct procedure it is wholly incomprehensible how the appellant could be deprived of her right to get her grievance redressed by filing an appeal against the order which had been made in her absence and without her knowledge. It would be a travesty of justice if a party is driven to file a suit which would involve long and cumbersome procedure when an order has been made directly affecting that party and redress can be had by filing an appeal
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NC: 2025:KHC-K:1739 WP No. 203394 of 2023 which is permitted by law. It is well settled that a person who is not a party to the suit may prefer an appeal with the leave of the appellate court and such leave should be granted if he would be prejudicially affected by the judgment. 14.53. By relying on the case of Jatan Kumar Golcha, his submission is that a person who is not a party to a dispute may prefer an appeal with the leave of the appellate Court so long he is an aggrieved person by such order, in that regard Respondent No.9 herein is thus entitled to file the said appeal.
14.54. His submission is that irrespective of the proceedings challenging the election, a challenge to the certificate in the 1990 Act is separately maintainable and in this regard, he relies upon the decision of the Division Bench of this Court in Veeresh vs. The State Of Karnataka28, more particularly para nos. 16, 28 W.A.NOS.101469-470/2016
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NC: 2025:KHC-K:1739 WP No. 203394 of 2023 17 and 18 thereof, which are reproduced hereunder for easy reference:
16. A combined reading of Article 243-O of the Constitution of India and Sections 15 and 171 of the Karnataka Gram Swaraj and Panchayat Raj Act, 1993, makes it clear that the election to panchayat can be called in question only through an election petition, before the competent Authority. Thus, there is no ambiguity with respect to the position of law. However, what is required to be seen in the case on hand is whether the relief sought for in the writ petitions before the learned Single Judge was setting aside of the election results or challenging any election process, thus making it an election petition.
17. The prayer made in W.P.Nos. 103198-
103199/2016 (GM-CC) is as below:
" i. Issue a writ, order or direction in the nature of certiorari, quashing the caste certificate dated 20.01.2016 vide No.MSC/CR/145/2015-16, issued by the respondent No.4 in favour of the respondent No.5, produced at Annexure-H."
The prayer made in W.P.No.29822/2016 is as below:
" i. Call for the records which ultimately resulted in issuing Endorsement Annexure A dated 01.03.2016 bearing No.MSC/CR/2015-16 issued by the 4th respondent.
ii. Issue an order, direction, writ in the nature of certiorari quashing the Endorsement Annexure A dated 01.03.2016 bearing No.MSC/CR/2015-16 issued by the 4th respondent.
iii. Issue an order, direction, writ in the nature of quashing the caste certificate dated 20.1.2016 vide Annexure-L issued by the respondent, as the same is illegal and without the authority of law.
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NC: 2025:KHC-K:1739 WP No. 203394 of 2023 iv. Direct the respondent to initiate criminal prosecution against the 5th respondent for making false declaration in obtaining the Caste Certificate for contesting election No.18 Dhannur Zilla Panchayat Constituency."
Neither of the above two sets of writ petitions have anyway prayed for setting aside the election or to declare the candidature of respondent No.5 as invalid. There is no element of prayer, which touches the procedural aspect of the elections held to the Zilla Panchayat. What is prayed is only the document which is called an Income-cum-Caste Certificate issued by the respondent No.4 - Tahasildar, which document, the respondent No.5 is said to have obtained fraudulently. It is very important to note at this juncture that the document challenged, which is the Income-cum-Caste Certificate dated 20.01.2016 and bearing No.MSC/CR/145/2015- 16, is not a document confining only for the use of election. It can be observed that such a certificate of income and caste was otherwise also being issued by a competent Authority, who is respondent No.4 - Tahasildar herein, under the Karnataka Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribes and Other Backward Classes (reservation in appointments etc.,) Rules, 1992. The said certificate can be used for different purposes. Incidentally, the same certificate could also be used as a proof of caste and income for contesting the elections to Zilla Panchayats also. Thus, it cannot be taken that the impugned Income-cum-Caste Certificate is exclusively a document for the electoral process only. Therefore, challenging the said document, though it may as one of its consequence, have impact in the process of adjudication of the election petition, by that itself it cannot be called that should be through an election petition only and not otherwise. In our view, the learned Single Judge did not make this thin distinction between an election petition as such and challenging a document or issuance of a
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18. Therefore, we are unable to agree to the main contention taken up by the respondents that the writ petitions as well the present writ appeals are not maintainable and that the appropriate course for the appellants was to challenge the impugned certificate and the process of its issuance only through an election petition.
14.55. By relying on Veeresh's case, he submits that the caste certificate of a person is not a document that is issued exclusively for the purpose of electoral process alone. A challenge to the said document may be a consequence of the electoral process and may impact the outcome of the election petition, but that by itself cannot mandate that a challenge is to be sought only by way of an election petition. In this regard Respondent No. 9 cannot be restricted to seek recourse only by way of an election petition.
14.56. Alternatively, he submits that this Court could also intervene in the matter, where ex-facie it is
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NC: 2025:KHC-K:1739 WP No. 203394 of 2023 seen that the certificate obtained by the petitioner is not sustainable and in that regard, he relies upon the decision of the Hon'ble Apex Court in K. Venkatachalam v. A. Swamickan29, more particularly para nos. 26, 27 and 28 thereof, which are reproduced hereunder for easy reference:
26. The question that arises for consideration is if in such circumstances the High Court cannot exercise its jurisdiction under Article 226 of the Constitution declaring that the appellant is not qualified to be a Member of Tamil Nadu Legislative Assembly from Lalgudi Assembly Constituency. From the finding recorded by the High Court it is clear that the appellant in his nomination form impersonated a person known as "Venkatachalam, s/o Pethu" taking advantage of the fact that such a person bears his first name. The appellant would be even criminally liable as he filed his nomination on an affidavit impersonating himself. If in such circumstances he is allowed to continue to sit and vote in the Assembly his action would be a fraud on the Constitution.
27. In view of the judgment of this Court in the case of Election Commission of India v. Saka Venkata Rao [(1953) 1 SCC 320 : AIR 1953 SC 210] it may be that action under Article 192 could not be taken as the disqualification which the appellant incurred was prior to his election.
Various decisions of this Court, which have been referred to by the appellant that jurisdiction of 29 (1999) 4 SCC 526
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NC: 2025:KHC-K:1739 WP No. 203394 of 2023 the High Court under Article 226 is barred challenging the election of a returned candidate and which we have noted above, do not appear to apply to the case of the appellant now before us. Article 226 of the Constitution is couched in the widest possible terms and unless there is a clear bar to jurisdiction of the High Court its powers under Article 226 of the Constitution can be exercised when there is any act which is against any provision of law or violative of constitutional provisions and when recourse cannot be had to the provisions of the Act for the appropriate relief. In circumstances like the present one the bar of Article 329(b) will not come into play when the case falls under Articles 191 and 193 and the whole of the election process is over. Consider the case where the person elected is not a citizen of India. Would the court allow a foreign citizen to sit and vote in the Legislative Assembly and not exercise jurisdiction under Article 226 of the Constitution?
28. We are, therefore, of the view that the High Court rightly exercised its jurisdiction in entertaining the writ petition under Article 226 of the Constitution and declared that the appellant was not entitled to sit in Tamil Nadu Legislative Assembly with consequent restraint order on him from functioning as a Member of the Legislative Assembly. The net effect is that the appellant ceases to be a Member of Tamil Nadu Legislative Assembly. Period of the Legislative Assembly is long since over. Otherwise we would have directed Respondent 2, who is Secretary to Tamil Nadu Legislative Assembly, to intimate to the Election Commission that Lalgudi Assembly Constituency seat has fallen vacant and for the Election Commission to take necessary steps to hold fresh election from that Assembly constituency. Normally in a case like this the Election Commission should invariably be made a party.
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NC: 2025:KHC-K:1739 WP No. 203394 of 2023 14.57. By relying on K. Venkatachalam's case, his submission is that the High Court has a very wide array of jurisdiction under Article 226, which may even stretch to the extent of election-related matters, any action which is against any provision of law or violative of Constitutional provisions is under the scope of Article 226 for scrutiny in the widest possible terms. Hence, although the impugned notice is a result of an appeal consequent to an election, this Court may interfere and adjudicate on the said matter.
14.58. Lastly, he submits that the decision on DCVC being well-reasoned is not correct in as much as it is completely unsustainable contrary to the detailed enquiry which has been made by DRE Cell. The facts have not been taken into consideration properly, the birth certificate relied upon by DCVC was one which was issued after the commencement of proceedings. The
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NC: 2025:KHC-K:1739 WP No. 203394 of 2023 earlier facts relating to the date of birth, place of birth and place of residence of the petitioner have not been properly considered by DCVC and in this regard, he submits that any false claim of caste membership is a fraud on the Constitution availing of benefits reserved for Scheduled Caste Community by making a false certificate is also a fraud under Constitution. 14.59. In this regard, he relies upon the decision of the Hon'ble Apex Court in Madhuri Patil v. Commr., Tribal Development30, more particularly para nos. 15, 16, 17 and 18 thereof, which are reproudued hereunder for easy reference:
15. The question then is whether the approach adopted by the High Court in not elaborately considering the case is vitiated by an error of law. High Court is not a court of appeal to appreciate the evidence. The Committee which is empowered to evaluate the evidence placed before it when records a finding of fact, it ought to prevail unless found vitiated by judicial review of any High Court subject to limitations of interference with findings of fact. The Committee when considers all the material facts and records 30 (1994) 6 SCC 241
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NC: 2025:KHC-K:1739 WP No. 203394 of 2023 a finding, though another view, as a court of appeal may be possible, it is not a ground to reverse the findings. The court has to see whether the Committee considered all the relevant material placed before it or has not applied its mind to relevant facts which have led the Committee ultimately record the finding. Each case must be considered in the backdrop of its own facts.
16. Whether appellants are entitled to their further continuance in the studies is the further question. Often the plea of equities or promissory estoppel would be put forth for continuance and completion of further course of studies and usually would be found favour with the courts. The courts have constitutional duty and responsibility, in exercise of the power of its judicial review, to see that constitutional goals set down in the Preamble, the Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles of the Constitution, are achieved. A party that seeks equity, must come with clean hands. He who comes to the court with false claim, cannot plead equity nor the court would be justified to exercise equity jurisdiction in his favour. There is no estoppel as no promise of the social status is made by the State when a false plea was put forth for the social status recognised and declared by the Presidential Order under the Constitution as amended by the SC & ST (Amendment) Act, 1976, which is later found to be false. Therefore, the plea of promissory estoppel or equity have no application. When it is found to be a case of fraud played by the concerned, no sympathy and equitable considerations can come to his rescue. Nor the plea of estoppel is germane to the beneficial constitutional concessions and opportunities given to the genuine tribes or castes. Courts would be circumspect and vary in considering such cases.
17. We have seen that Miss Suchita rightly made an application before the competent officer
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NC: 2025:KHC-K:1739 WP No. 203394 of 2023 within whose jurisdiction her father lives in Muland and when he refused to give the certificate, she filed an appeal; approached the High Court and obtained direction and gained admission. It is not in dispute that the Additional Commissioner was delaying it; he did not decide as directed by the High Court, instead directed the Tahsildar to issue the certificate. Thus she secured a false social status certificate and orders of the court were used to gain admission. The judicial process is made use of to secure admission. She continued her studies thereafter pending scrutiny of her status certificate. No doubt there was a delay on the part of the Scrutiny Committee in the disposal of the claims and we do not find any record to scan the reasons for the delay. Suffice to state that her parents have put her under a cloud as to her social status. But as seen from the facts a course of conduct was adopted by her parents to gain admission on the claim which is now found to be false. Parents' misconduct visits the children also many a times. However, she has now completed the course of study except to appear for the final year as contended for her and nothing more is to be done in the situation for her to complete her course of study. We direct the Principal to permit her to sit for the final year examination, if she has completed the course of study as represented to us but not with the social status as a Scheduled Tribe which was claimed fraudulently and made her admission with the aid of the court's order and continue her studies. The delay in disposal facilitated her continuance in study of MBBS course.
18. The delay in the process is inevitable but that factor should neither be considered to be relevant nor be an aid to complete the course of study. But for the fact that she has completed the entire course except to appear for the final examination, we would have directed to debar her from prosecuting the studies and appearing in the examination. In this factual situation no useful purpose would be served to debar her from appearing for the examination of final year
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NC: 2025:KHC-K:1739 WP No. 203394 of 2023 MBBS. Therefore, we uphold the cancellation of the social status as Mahadeo Koli fraudulently obtained by Km Suchita Laxman Patil, but she be allowed to appear for the final year examination of MBBS course. She will not, however be entitled in future for any benefits on the basis of the fraudulent social status as Mahadeo Koli. However, this direction should not be treated and used as a precedent in future cases to give any similar directions since the same defeats constitutional goals.
14.60. By relying on Madhuri Patil's case, he submits that a party that approaches the Court seeking equity must come with clean hands, and any person who prays relief based upon a false claim or is found to play fraud on the Court, no sympathy or equitable considerations come to his rescue. The petitioner having relied on false caste claims has therefore played fraud on this Court, necessitating dismissal at the bud itself. 14.61. He relies upon the decision of the Hon'ble Apex Court in Raju Ramsing Vasave v. Mahesh Deorao Bhivapurkar31, more particularly para 31 (2008) 9 SCC 54
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NC: 2025:KHC-K:1739 WP No. 203394 of 2023 nos. 30 to 38 thereof, which are reproduced hereunder for easy reference;
30. The principle of res judicata is undoubtedly a salutary principle. Even a wrong decision would attract the principle of res judicata. The said principle, however, amongst others, has some exceptions e.g. when a judgment is passed without jurisdiction, when the matter involves a pure question of law or when the judgment has been obtained by committing fraud on the court.
31. In Williams v. Lourdusamy [(2008) 5 SCC 647] this Court stated the law, thus: (SCC p. 650, para 11) "11. The principles of res judicata although provide for a salutary principle that no person shall be harassed again and again, have its own limitations. In OS No. 402 of 1987, Respondent 2 was not impleaded as a party. In his absence therefore, the issue as to whether Respondent 2 had entered into an oral agreement of sale or not could not have been adjudicated upon. The said court had no jurisdiction in that behalf. If that was decided in the said suit, the findings would have been nullities."
32. Two legal principles which would govern a case of this nature are:
(i) A decision rendered without jurisdiction being a nullity, the principle of res judicata shall not apply.
(ii) If a fraud has been committed on the court, no benefit therefrom can be claimed on the basis thereof or otherwise.
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33. In support of the first principle, we may at the outset refer to Chief Justice of A.P. v. L.V.A. Dixitulu [(1979) 2 SCC 34 : 1979 SCC (L&S) 99] wherein this Court, while discussing the effect of Section 11 CPC on a pure question of law or a decision given by a court without jurisdiction, opined: (SCC p. 42, para 24) "24. ... Moreover, this is a pure question of law depending upon the interpretation of Article 371- D. If the argument holds good, it will make the decision of the Tribunal as having been given by an authority suffering from inherent lack of jurisdiction. Such a decision cannot be sustained merely by the doctrine of res judicata or estoppel as urged in this case."
34. A three-Judge Bench of this Court in Ashok Leyland Ltd. v. State of T.N. [(2004) 3 SCC 1] held: (SCC p. 44, para 118) "118. The principle of res judicata is a procedural provision. A jurisdictional question, if wrongly decided, would not attract the principle of res judicata. When an order is passed without jurisdiction, the same becomes a nullity. When an order is a nullity, it cannot be supported by invoking the procedural principles like estoppel, waiver or res judicata."
(See also Dwarka Prasad Agarwal v. B.D. Agarwal [(2003) 6 SCC 230] , Union of India v. Pramod Gupta [(2005) 12 SCC 1] and National Institute of Technology v. Niraj Kumar Singh [(2007) 2 SCC 481 : (2007) 1 SCC (L&S) 668] .)
35. So far as the second principle, noticed by us, is concerned, there is no dearth of authority. Fraud vitiates all solemn acts. When an order has been obtained by practising fraud on the court, it would be a nullity.
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36. In Ganpatbhai Mahijibhai Solanki v. State of Gujarat [(2008) 12 SCC 353 : (2008) 3 Scale 556] this Court held:
"It is now a well-settled principle that fraud vitiates all solemn acts. If an order is obtained by reason of commission of fraud, even the principles of natural justice are not required to be complied with for setting aside the same."
It was further observed:
"In T. Vijendradas v. M. Subramanian [(2007) 8 SCC 751] this Court held: (SCC p. 766, paras 27-
28) '27. ... When a fraud is practised on a court, the same is rendered a nullity. In a case of nullity, even the principles of natural justice are not required to be complied with. (Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan v. Ajay Kumar Das [(2002) 4 SCC 503 : 2002 SCC (L&S) 582] and A. Umarani v. Registrar, Coop. Societies [(2004) 7 SCC 112 : 2004 SCC (L&S) 918] .)
28. Once it is held that by reason of commission of a fraud, a decree is rendered to be void rendering all subsequent proceedings taken pursuant thereto also nullity, in our opinion, it would be wholly inequitable to confer a benefit on a party who is a beneficiary thereunder.' "
37. In K.D. Sharma v. Steel Authority of India Ltd. [(2008) 12 SCC 481 : (2008) 10 Scale 227] this Court opined:
"Reference was also made to a recent decision of this Court in A.V. Papayya Sastry v. Govt. of A.P. [(2007) 4 SCC 221] Considering English and Indian cases, one of us (C.K. Thakker, J.) stated:
(SCC p. 231, para 22)
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NC: 2025:KHC-K:1739 WP No. 203394 of 2023 '22. It is thus settled proposition of law that a judgment, decree or order obtained by playing fraud on the court, tribunal or authority is a nullity and non est in the eye of the law. Such a judgment, decree or order--by the first court or by the final court--has to be treated as nullity by every court, superior or inferior. It can be challenged in any court, at any time, in appeal, revision, writ or even in collateral proceedings.' The Court defined fraud as an act of deliberate deception with the design of securing something by taking unfair advantage of another. In fraud one gains at the loss and cost of another. Even the most solemn proceedings stand vitiated if they are actuated by fraud. Fraud is thus an extrinsic collateral act which vitiates all judicial acts, whether in rem or in personam."
38. The order dated 11-8-1988, thus, would not operate as a res judicata so as to disable it from considering the merit of the case of Respondent 1 by the State of Maharashtra or the Maharashtra Pollution Control Board afresh. The decision of the High Court ex facie is unsustainable.
14.62. By relying on Raju Ramsing Vasave's case, he submits that it is settled law that fraud vitiates everything and an order obtained by fraud would not even attract the principles of natural justice when seeking to set aside the same.
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NC: 2025:KHC-K:1739 WP No. 203394 of 2023 14.63. He relies upon the decision of the Hon'ble Apex Court in Jayashree v. Director of Collegiate Education32, more particularly para nos. 16 and 20 thereof, which are reproduced hereunder for easy reference:
16. On going through the above said paragraph, therein it has been specifically observed that, if a person obtains a false certificate and gets an appointment, it would be like allowing a thief to retain the stolen property. In that light also the contention taken up by the learned counsel for the petitioner does not hold any water. When the petitioner has taken the benefit on a false certificate, then it cannot be held that the said candidate is fit to hold the post which is reserved for the said category. Even the cancellation of the Caste Certificate has attained finality and even the said order has not been challenged.
Under the said facts and circumstances, the contention of the petitioner that she ought not to have been terminated and the benefit of the circular or an order of the appointment could have been given is not acceptable.
20. On going through, the above said paragraphs, the Hon'ble Apex Court has clearly held that where a case is based on fraud no sympathy or equity can come to the rescue of the petitioner. In that light also the contention of the petitioner is not acceptable. 14.64. By relying on Jayashree's case, he submits that a person who obtains a false caste certificate and is allowed to use its benefits 32 2018 SCC OnLine Kar 3923
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NC: 2025:KHC-K:1739 WP No. 203394 of 2023 thereunder would amount to allowing a thief to retain stolen property, and in this regard the Petitioner is fraudulently availing the benefits created for genuine SC/ST persons thereby playing fraud on the entire deprived sections. 14.65. The Co-ordinate Bench of this Court in Sri Satish Choudappa Honnali vs. The State Of Karnataka33, more particularly para nos. 3 and 4 thereof, which are reproduced hereunder for easy reference:
3. Having heard the learned counsel for the parties and having perused the appeal papers, we decline indulgence in the matter broadly agreeing with the submission of learned AGA.
Wherever a certificate of social status is obtained in violation of law or by playing fraud or is granted by mistake, ordinarily proceedings are permissible under the provisions of the 1990 Act and the Rules promulgated thereunder, subject to all just exceptions. Learned Single Judge keeping this mind has rightly reserved liberty to the Authorities concerned.
4. The submission of learned Senior Advocate appearing for the appellant that once the Validity Certificate is issued, never there can be any enquiry in any circumstance, appears to be too broad proposition of law. One immediate example for faltering such a broad statement is 33 W.A. No.587/2023
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NC: 2025:KHC-K:1739 WP No. 203394 of 2023 the ground of fraud. The Apex Court in S.P.CHANGALAVARAYA NAIDU vs. JAGANNATH, (1994) 1 SCC 1, has observed that fraud vitiates everything. If a certificate of social status is secured by playing fraud, the same can be rescinded in an appropriate proceeding by the jurisdictional authorities. Therefore, the Validity Certificate cannot be construed as a China Wall that prevents any action being taken. 14.66. By placing reliance on Satish Choudappa Honnali's case, his submission is that despite the issuance of a validity certificate, the matter is open to scrutiny and inquiry under certain exceptional circumstances such as fraud and a caste validity certificate cannot be construed as a China Wall that prevents any further action for mala fide acts. The Petitioner having fraudulently obtained and illegally in use of reservation benefits is an essential ground to impugn the validity certificate issued by the DCVC in his favour.
14.67. Based on all the above, he submits that the appeal filed by respondent No.9 is maintainable. The notice of enquiry which has
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NC: 2025:KHC-K:1739 WP No. 203394 of 2023 been issued is proper and correct. It is for the petitioner to appear before the concerned authorities and place the necessary facts and documents on record which is considered by the Appellate Authority. On all the above gournds, he submits that the above petition is required to be dismissed.
15. Heard Sri. Ameet Kumar Deshpande, learned Senior Counsel appearing for the petitioner, Sri. C. Jagadish, learned counsel appearing for respondents No.1 to 8 and Sri. Aditya Narayan, learned counsel appearing for Respondent No.9. Persued papers.
16. The points that would arise for the consideration of this Court are:
1. Can Respondent No.9 being a third-party to the earlier appeal, file an appeal under Section 4D of the Act of 1990, and a notice of enquiry be issued in furtherance thereof, in the background of the earlier appeal having been withdrawn by the earlier appellant therein?
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2. Can Respondent No. 9 be said to have locus standi to file the appeal under section 4D on the ground that he is a contestant in the election to be Member of Legislative Assembly for Aurad constituency or would he have to separately file an election petition challenging the election of the petitioner?
3. Whether the Petitioner can maintain the present writ petition challenging a show cause notice or a notice of enquiry?
4. To maintain a valid appeal under Section 4D of the Act of 1990, what is the prescribed period of limitation that would be applicable thereto?
5. On account of the earlier order passed by the DCVC, and the earlier appeal filed having been withdrawn, would the present appeal filed by Respondent No. 9 be barred by the principle of Res Judicata having attained finality, and in that regard amount to an abuse of the legal process by initiating repeated proceedings?
6. Would Respondent No.2 be regarded as Functus Officio on account of the earlier appeal having been withdrawn, and thus estopped from adjudicating on the fresh appeal?
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7. Whether a person born in a caste or community, which is not notified as a scheduled tribe or scheduled caste in the state of birth, upon migration to another state, wherein that caste or community is notified as a scheduled caste or scheduled tribe, be entitled to the benefit granted to such scheduled caste or scheduled tribe in the state to which the person has migrated to?
8. Even if an election petition were to be filed, could the election tribunal, be empowered to decide on the validity or otherwise of the caste certificate under the Karnataka Scheduled Caste, Scheduled Tribes and Other Backward Classes (Reservation of Appointments, Etc.) Act, 1990 or would it have to be done by the authorities as constituted under the Act of 1990?
9. In the present case, can this Court go into the aspect of validity or otherwise of the caste certificate of the Petitioner or would it have to be left to the concerned authority under the Act of 1990?
10. Can the High Court consider the disputed question of facts and allegations of fraud in the present writ petition or would it have to be decided by the concerned authority under the Act of 1990?
11. Whether the doctrine of merger would apply in the instant case?
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12. Whether this Court can intercede and adjudicate upon the impugned notice?
13. What order?
17. I answers above points are as under;
18. Answer to the points No.1 and 2: Can Respondent No.9 being a third-party to the earlier appeal, file an appeal under Section 4D of the Act of 1990, and a notice of enquiry be issued in furtherance thereof, in the background of the earlier appeal having been withdrawn by the earlier appellant therein? And Can Respondent No. 9 be said to have locus standi to file the appeal under Section 4D on the ground that he is a contestant in the election to be Member of Legislative Assembly for Aurad constituency or would he have to separately file an election petition challenging the election of the petitioner?
16.1 The contention of Sri. Ameet Kumar Deshpande, learned Senior Counsel appearing for the petitioners is that respondent No.9 was not a party to the earlier proceedings, more so the appeal which had been filed under Section 4D of the Act of 1990, and therefore the
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NC: 2025:KHC-K:1739 WP No. 203394 of 2023 question of the Respondent No.9 filing a fresh appeal under Section 4D would not arise. The earlier appeal filed by Sri.Shankarrao Doddi has been withdrawn, and hence no fresh appeal under Section 4D could be filed.
16.2 By relying on Section 4D, his submission is that it is only a person who is aggrieved by an order made by the Verification Committee under Section 4C that can file an appeal under Section 4D. The earlier appeal filed by Sri.Shankarrao Doddi under Section 4D having been withdrawn, he having been the aggrieved party, Respondent No.9 cannot be said to be either the aggrieved party nor could he file the present petition.
16.3 The submission of Sri. C.Jagadish, learned counsel for the State is that Sri. Shankarrao Doddi having challenged the order passed by DCVC in a Writ Petition in WP No.58264 of 2017, the said writ petition came to be
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NC: 2025:KHC-K:1739 WP No. 203394 of 2023 dismissed, reserving liberty to Sri. Shankarrao Doddi to approach the Appellate Authority under Section 4D.
16.4 He having filed the said appeal, his right to file the said appeal had been challenged by the petitioner in WP No.201341 of 2018, which came to be disposed again reserving liberty to Sri.Shankarrao Doddi to file an appeal under Section 4D. An appeal having been filed by Sri. Shankarrao Doddi under Section 4D and he withdrew the said appeal. The Appellate authority being of the considered opinion that the withdrawal was bad, imposed a cost of Rs.1,00,000/-.
16.5 Thus, the submission of Sri. C.Jagadish, learned counsel in this regard is that the mere withdrawal of the appeal would not put an end to the right of any other aggrieved person like that of Respondent No.9. The order of the DCVC dated 20.11.2017 not having stood the
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NC: 2025:KHC-K:1739 WP No. 203394 of 2023 rigour of an appeal, Respondent No.9 cannot be prevented from filing an appeal in the background of there being no finality to the proceedings which had been arrived at. 16.6 Similarly, the submission made by Sri. Aditya Narayan, learned counsel for Respondent No.9- Appellant, is that if such a contention were to be accepted, then Respondent No.9 would be left with no other option and/or remedy. It is in this background, the above points would have to be addressed.
16.7 It is not in dispute that the petitioner claiming the benefit of belonging to the Scheduled Tribe Category had contested the elections for the year 2008, 2013, 2018 and thereafter 2023, on the basis of the certificate issued by the Tahasildhar that he belonged to the Scheduled Tribe Category. When the petitioner contested the election in the year 2013, Sri.Shankarrao Doddi had contended that the certificate
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NC: 2025:KHC-K:1739 WP No. 203394 of 2023 obtained by the petitioner was not proper and as such had challenged the certificate. The matter having been referred to the DCVC, the DCVC had issued a certificate on 20.11.2017 that he belonged to the 'Lambani' caste and therefore was entitled to the Schedule Tribe Certificate. The further aspects of the challenge made thereto have been mentioned hereinabove.
16.8 It is further not in dispute that Respondent No.9 is a contestant to the Aurad Constituency of the Legislative Assembly of Karnataka. It is the very same constituency as regards which the Petitioner also had contested. Respondent No.9 is also claiming the benefit of the Schedule Caste Category. The contention of Respondent No.9 is that, if the petitioner were to be denied the benefit of the Scheduled Caste Certificate for the aforesaid reasons, the Aurad Constituency being a reserved constituency for
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NC: 2025:KHC-K:1739 WP No. 203394 of 2023 Scheduled Castes, would result in the petitioner being disentitled to contest the elections therein and as such, the same would directly and substantially affect the rights of Respondent No.9.
16.9 Sri. Ameet Kumar Deshpande, has relied upon the decision in Ayaaubkhan Narkhan Pathan's case to contend that Respondent No.9 is required to be treated as a third-party stranger by further contending that the Hon'ble Apex Court in Ayaaubkhan Narkhan Pathan's case has held that the Court must maintain a strict vigilance to ensure that there is no abuse of the process of Court and meddlesome bystanders ought not to be provided a forum to agitate their alleged grievances, when there are no such grievances. 16.10 I am unable to accept the submission of Sri. Ameet Kumar Deshpande, learned Senior Counsel in this regard, inasmuch as that was a
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NC: 2025:KHC-K:1739 WP No. 203394 of 2023 decision where the Hon'ble Apex Court held that a stranger cannot be permitted to meddle in any proceedings, unless he satisfies the Authority/Court that he falls within the category of aggrieved persons. Though the Hon'ble Apex Court has held that strangers cannot be permitted to meddle in the proceedings, an exception has also been carved out by the Hon'ble Apex Court that if a person were to satisfy that he falls within the category of an aggrieved person, he could be permitted to agitate his rights.
16.11 In the present matter, as referred to above, Respondent No.9 is also a contestant for the reserved Constituency of Aurad and as rightly contended by Sri.Aditya Narayan, learned counsel in the event of the Caste Certificate of the petitioner being set aside, then the petitioner would not be entitled to participate in the election and as such, the very act of the
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NC: 2025:KHC-K:1739 WP No. 203394 of 2023 petitioner contesting in the election would make Respondent No.9 aggrieved by such contesting. And as such, Respondent No.9 cannot be said to be a person who is not aggrieved by the validity certificate issued by the DCVC. 16.12 Looked at from another angle, if the said validity certificate had not been challenged by Sri. Shankarrao Doddi, it could not be said that Respondent No.9 did not have any grievance or was not an affected party. On the face of the record, Respondent No.9 being a co-contestant with the petitioner, such contest would not have happened if the petitioner did not have a Caste Validity Certificate indicating him to belong to the Scheduled Caste Category. 16.13 Therefore, if the petitioner were to be contesting in a reserved constituency on the basis of a false certificate obtained by him, I am of the considered opinion that Respondent No.9 could not be said to be a third-party or a
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NC: 2025:KHC-K:1739 WP No. 203394 of 2023 stranger, but would have to be considered to be an aggrieved party by the very fact of the petitioner contesting to a reserved constituency on the basis of a false reservation certificate. Thus, the decision in Ayaaubkhan Narkhan Pathan's case would not favour the petitioner but would actually favour Respondent No.9, in my considered opinion.
16.14 Sri. Ameet Kumar Deshpande has also relied upon the decision in R.S.Mahadev's case which in turn relied upon Ayaaubkhan Narkhan Pathan's case. This decision also in my considered opinion would not be attracted to the present facts. R.S. Mahadev's case was rendered in the background of the appellant not being a person who had applied to the post to which the person who had obtained the Caste Certificate had applied and in that background, the Division Bench of this Court came to a
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NC: 2025:KHC-K:1739 WP No. 203394 of 2023 conclusion that such a person was not an aggrieved party.
16.15 In the present case, at the cost of repitition, it would again have to be noticed that the Respondent No.9 is a rival contestant to the Aurad Constituency where the petitioner had applied to contest in an election. Thus, the decision in R.S.Mahadev's case would also not be applicable.
16.16 In the second round of litigation, as adverted to Supra after the withdrawal of the appeal filed by Sri. Shankarrao Doddi, Sri. Ravindraswamy and Sri. Vijayakumar had filed a Revision Petition under Section 4F of the Act of 1990, the same having been dismissed came to be challenged by Sri. Ravindraswamy in WP No.225917 of 2020, when the single judge held that the Revision Petition is maintainable, it came to be challenged by the petitioner in WA No.200031 of 2022 and
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NC: 2025:KHC-K:1739 WP No. 203394 of 2023 WA No.200032 of 2022 and the Division Bench of this Court vide order dated 13.01.2023 had held that, an appeal under Section 4D being the remedy available, a revision under Section 4F was not maintainable.
16.17 A challenge having been made before the Hon'ble Apex Court in SLP.C. No.7747 of 2023, the said SLP also came to be dismissed. The finding of the Division Bench in its order dated 13.01.2023 inWA No.200032 of 2022 is that against the DCVC's order only an appeal under Section 4D was maintainable and therefore, the attempt made by Sri.Ravindraswamy and Sri.Vijayakumar to challenge the order of the Tahasildhar dated 04.02.20213 by filing a revision was not permissible and that the Revision Petitions were not maintainable. 16.18 The Division Bench of this Court did not hold that an appeal was not maintainable but has in fact held that an appeal was maintainable and a
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NC: 2025:KHC-K:1739 WP No. 203394 of 2023 revision was not maintainable and in that background, allowed WA No.200031 of 2022 and WA No.200032 of 2022. The said order came to be challenged by Sri.Ravindraswamy, but was not challenged by the petitioner. Hence, the finding of the Division Bench of this Court, that an appeal was maintainable, continues to be applicable to the petitioner. 16.19 Be that as it may, even otherwise what was stated by the Division Bench was a reiteration of the law, in as much as an order passed by the DCVC under Section 4C could only be appealed under Section 4D and any person aggrieved thereafter could file a Revision Petition.
16.20 This Court in Vageesh's case, has also held that if a person is an aggrieved person, then he would come within the ambit of Section 4D. The Hon'ble Apex Court in M.V. Dabholkar's case (Supra), has held that the meaning of the
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NC: 2025:KHC-K:1739 WP No. 203394 of 2023 words a person aggrieved may vary according to the context of the statute, that a more liberal approach is required in the background of statutes which do not deal with property rights but deal with professional conduct and morality, the Hon'ble Apex Court while dealing with the meaning of the word 'person aggrieved' under Section 37 and 38 of the Bar Council of India Act, came to a conclusion that a meaning of wide import should be given and no restricted interpretation should be given to those words. It further held that a person who has a genuine grievance because an order has been made which prejudicially affects his interest would make such person an aggrieved person. 16.21 The Hon'ble Apex Court again in A. Subash Babu's case held that the concept of an aggrieved person is an elastic and an elusive concept which cannot be confined within the bounds of rigid, exact and comprehensive
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NC: 2025:KHC-K:1739 WP No. 203394 of 2023 definition, and meaning should be given to the words in such a way as to provide a remedy to an aggrieved person.
16.22 If these factors are taken into consideration, it cannot be said that Respondent No.9 is a third- party in the true sense of the term. Though Respondent No.9 was not a party to the earlier appeal or the earlier proceedings filed by Sri. Shankarrao Doddi and Sri. Ravindraswamy as also Sri. Vijaykumar, Respondent No.9 is now a rival contestant for the reserved assembly seat of Aurad.
16.23 The fact of withdrawal of the earlier appeal by Sri.Shankarrao Doddi has been dealt with briefly above. The said withdrawal happened in the third round of litigation inasmuch as the certificate having been issued by Tahasildhar was challenged by Sri.Shankarrao Doddi in a writ petition when this Court reserved liberty to Sri.Shankarrao Doddi to file an appeal under
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NC: 2025:KHC-K:1739 WP No. 203394 of 2023 Section 4D. Sri.Shankarrao Doddi having filed an appeal under Section 4D in pursuance which liberty was reserved, on account of the petitioner himself contending that a writ petition is not maintainable but an appeal under Section 4D was to be filed.
16.24 Shockingly, the petitioner challenged the filing of the appeal by filing a writ petition contending that the appeal under Section 4D was not maintainable, that writ petition came to be dismissed and thereafter an appeal had been filed by Sri.Shankarrao Doddi he withdrew the same as regards which cost of Rs.1,00,000/- (one lakh) was imposed.
16.25 The sequence of events which has been narrated above, would indicate that the stand of the petitioner has been completely mala fide. On one ground or the other, the petitioner had sought to thwart the actions on part of Sri. Shankarrao Doddi. Finally, Sri. Shankarrao
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NC: 2025:KHC-K:1739 WP No. 203394 of 2023 Doddi is stated to have withdrawn the appeal filed under Section 4D, despite a cost of Rs.1,00,000/- having been imposed, which to my mind does not inspire any confidence as regards the conduct of the petitioner. It appears that the petitioner has filed various proceedings to thwart the legal remedies of Sri. Shankarrao Doddi and finally prevailed upon Sri. Shankarrao Doddi to withdraw the appeal filed under Section 4D.
16.26 Thus, the challenge made to the Caste Certificate was not addressed or answered either in the writ petition or the appeal under Section 4D. The challenge made was withdrawn by Sri. Shankarrao Doddi, merely because Sri. Shankarrao Doddi who is a third party insofar as Respondent No.9 is concerned having withdrawn the appeal, the same cannot come in the way of Respondent No.9 agitating his own rights. As such, the withdrawal of the appeal by
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NC: 2025:KHC-K:1739 WP No. 203394 of 2023 Sri. Shankarrao Doddi cannot be said to come in the way of Respondent No.9 filing an appeal under Section 4D or affect his independent rights accrued on the ground of being a co- contestant to the elections against the petitioner.
16.27 The further contention urged by Sri.Ameet Kumar Deshpande, learned Senior Counsel appearing for the petitioner is that no notice of enquiry could be issued on an appeal having been filed under Section 4D. Section 4D has been reproduced hereinabove which would categorically indicate that any person aggrieved by an order passed by the Verification Committee under Section 4C, may within 30 days from the date of receipt of the order, file an appeal before the concerned authority and in terms of Sub-section (2) of Section 4D the Appellate Authority shall after giving to both
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NC: 2025:KHC-K:1739 WP No. 203394 of 2023 the parties an opportunity of being heard, pass such orders in appeal as it deems fit. 16.28 Thus, it is in pursuance of the powers vested in the Appellate Authority that a notice for enquiry has been issued by the Appellate Authority. Having held that the appeal filed by Respondent No.9 under 4D is maintainable the powers of the Appellate Authority are those that are provided for under the statute more particularly in Section 4E, wherein the Tahasildhar and Verification Committee enjoy the powers of a Civil Court. Therefore, in my considered opinion the notice of enquiry which has been issued by the Appellate Authority in pursuance of the validly instituted appeal by Respondent No.9 cannot be found fault with.
16.29 In that view of the matter, I answer PointNos.1 and 2 by holding that Respondent No.9 being a rival contestant to a reserved constituency cannot be said to be a third-party to the
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NC: 2025:KHC-K:1739 WP No. 203394 of 2023 dispute relating to the Caste Certificate of one other contestant to the same constituency like the petitioner herein.
16.30 An earlier appeal challenging such a Caste Certificate having been withdrawn would not bar the claim of the present contestant like Respondent No.9 on validly having instituted an appeal under Section 4D of the Act of 1990, and hence the Appellate Authority is well within its rights to issue a 'notice of enquiry'.
19. Answer to point No.3: Whether the Petitioner can maintain the present writ petition challenging a show cause notice or a notice of enquiry?
19.1. The submission of Sri. Ameet Kumar Deshpande, learned Senior Counsel is that there being several rounds of litigation earlier filed by certain other parties, the Caste Certificate issued in favour of the petitioner having been challenged in an appeal filed under Section 4D, the said appeal having been
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NC: 2025:KHC-K:1739 WP No. 203394 of 2023 withdrawn, no show cause notice or notice of enquiry could be issued to the Petitioner. 19.2. In this regard, he relies upon the decision of the Hon'ble Apex Court in Vicco Laboratories's case to contend that the show cause notice is issued without jurisdiction or is an abuse of the process of the Court, and in that the writ petition would be maintainable. The operative words of the said judgement of the Hon'ble Apex Court is that the show cause notice is required to be issued without jurisdiction or is an abuse of the process of law.
19.3. Insofar as jurisdiction is concerned, Section 4D which has been reproduced hereinabove clearly and categorically provides for the power of the Appellate Authority to issue notice, provide an opportunity of being heard to both the parties and thereafter pass an order. Thus, the Appellate Authority who has issued the
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NC: 2025:KHC-K:1739 WP No. 203394 of 2023 impugned notice has the jurisdiction to do so and it is for the concerned to reply to the same. 19.4. Insofar as the abuse of the process of law is concerned, in this regard, the submission of Sri. Ameet Kumar Deshpande, learned Senior Cousnel is that the earlier appeal under Section 4D having been withdrawn, another appeal under Section 4D filed by Respondent No.9 would not be maintainable , Appellate Authority ought not to have issued a show cause notice in that regard, the filing of the appeal in itself is an abuse of law which ought not to have been entertained by the Appellate Authority. 19.5. This aspect of whether Respondent No.9 could maintain an appeal under Section 4D will be dealt with in detail subsequently, suffice it to say that if an appeal is filed by an aggrieved party, then it cannot be said to be an abuse of the process of law under Section 4D.
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NC: 2025:KHC-K:1739 WP No. 203394 of 2023 19.6. The other decision relied upon by Sri. Ameet Kumar Deshpande, learned Senior Counsel is that of Whirlpool Corporation by relying on which he submits that the present writ petition is maintainable, since the same is filed for protection of the fundamental right of the petitioner in contesting the elections, and in that regard the impugned proceedings are wholly without jurisdiction.
19.7. Insofar as jurisdiction is concerned, I have dealt with it above while dealing with the decision of the Hon'ble Apex Court in Vicco Laboratories' case. The Appellate Authority therefore would have jurisdiction and would not come under the mischief sought to be prevented by the decision of the Hon'ble Apex Court in Whirlpool Corporation's case.
19.8. As regards fundamental rights, the petitioner does not have a fundamental right to contest, the said right is a right created under a statute
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NC: 2025:KHC-K:1739 WP No. 203394 of 2023 and it is the rights as per the statute which could be exercised by the petitioner and not otherwise.
19.9. The statutes among others which would be applicable are the Representation of the People Act, 1950 and the Karnataka Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes and Other Backward Classes (Reservation of Appointment etc.) Act, 1990 and as such the petitioner would have to comply with the requirements under those enactments. Thus, the right to contest an election cannot be traced to Part-III of the Constitution of India and as such the claim in this regard made by Sri.Ameet Kumar Deshpande, learned Senior counsel would also have to be rejected.
19.10. In that view of the matter, I answer point No.3 by holding that the Appellate Authority having the right to issue a show cause notice, it is but required for the petitioner to reply to the same
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NC: 2025:KHC-K:1739 WP No. 203394 of 2023 and stand the rigour of the appeal under Section 4D.
20. Answer to Point No.4: To maintain a valid appeal under Section 4D of the Act of 1990, what is the prescribed period of limitation that would be applicable thereto?
20.1. The submission of Sri. Ameet Kumar Deshpande, learned Senior Counsel appearing for the petitioner is that in terms of Sub-section (1) of Section 4D, any aggrieved person of an order passed under Section 4C is required to file an appeal within 30 days from the date of receipt of the order. Thus, he submits that the order under challenged being an order passed under Section 4C dated 20.11.2017 an appeal ought to have been filed by 19.12.2017. The present proceedings have been initiated on 06.11.2023 by Respondent No.9 is hopelessly barred by limitation. There being a lapse of more than six years from the date on which the order was passed, the First Appellate Authority
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NC: 2025:KHC-K:1739 WP No. 203394 of 2023 ought to have rejected the appeal in limine without causing any notice on the petitioner. 20.2. His further submission in this regard is that even a challenge made to the said order by Sri.Shankarrao Doddi was withdrawn on 07.05.2018, if Respondent No.9 was aggrieved by such withdrawal, Respondent No.9 ought to have filed an appeal within 30 days from 07.05.2018 that is by 06.06.2018. The same also not having been done, the present proceedings having been filed 5 years thereafter is barred by limitation. 20.3. Lastly, he submits that one Sri. Ravindraswamy and Sri. Vijay Kumar having filed a Revision Petition under Section 4F of the Act of 1990, the said Revision Petition having been allowed by the writ Court by a single judge came to be set aside by the Hon'ble Division Bench on 13.01.2023 and confirmed by the Hon'ble Apex Court on 01.05.2023.The present proceedings
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NC: 2025:KHC-K:1739 WP No. 203394 of 2023 having been filed much thereafter are also barred by the law of limitation.
20.4. The submission of Sri. C. Jagdish, learned counsel is that though Section 4D contemplates an appeal to be filed within 30 days, the same would have to be taken into consideration from the date of knowledge of the order and not from the date of the order itself and apart therefrom, he submits that it is only when a person is aggrieved by an order could the same be challenged.
20.5. Insofar as knowledge, he submits that that is for Respondent No.9 to establish. However, insofar as Respondent No.9 being aggrieved he submits that Respondent No.9 having contested the elections only in the year 2023 as a rival candidate to the petitioner, it is only then could Respondent No.9 be said to be aggrieved by a false or fraudulent Caste Certificate issued to the petitioner. Thus, he submits that the
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NC: 2025:KHC-K:1739 WP No. 203394 of 2023 appeal filed by Respondent No.9 from the date of knowledge can be said to be within time. 20.6. His further submission as a special counsel to protect the interest of persons belonging to Schedule Caste and Schedule Tribe category is that if there is any fraud perpetuated by a person claiming to belong to the Schedule Caste or Schedule Tribe category and a challenge is made thereto, this Court ought to be liberal in condoning any delay since it is in the interest of the depressed category, more particularly the Schedule Caste or Schedule Tribe Category which is required to be protected both internally and externally. 20.7. Internally in as much as from persons who falsely claim to belong to the said category and corner the benefits and externally against persons who do not belong to the category but seek to oppress persons belonging to the aforesaid categories.
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NC: 2025:KHC-K:1739 WP No. 203394 of 2023 20.8. Sri. Aditya Narayan, learned counsel appearing for Respondent No.9, would also reiterate the submission made by, Sri. C. Jagdish and submit that Respondent No.9 came to know of the earlier proceedings only when Respondent No.9 contested in the said elections. Even otherwise, it is only when the petitioner contested against Respondent No.9 on the basis of a false certificate issued, that Respondent No.9 became an aggrieved party. Thus, the limitation period of 30 days prescribed under Sub-section (1) of Section 4D would have to be taken into consideration from the date on which the aggrieved person had knowledge of the said impugned order, as also from the date on which the aggrieved person can be said to be aggrieved, so without a person being aggrieved an appeal under Section 4D is not maintainable. 20.9. In this regard, he relies upon the decision of the Hon'ble Apex Court in Madan Lal's case to
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NC: 2025:KHC-K:1739 WP No. 203394 of 2023 contend that a remedy cannot be lost for no fault of a person. It is a fundamental principle of justice that a party whose rights are affected by an order must have notice of it and thus it is from the date of notice that the limitation period ought to commence.
20.10. He also relies upon the decision in Alamelu Ammal's case and submits that for the purpose of computing limitation as regards an appeal or revision, the date of communication of a copy of the order would have to be taken into consideration, Respondent No.9 not being a party to the earlier proceedings was never communicated with the said decision. Therefore, the date of the decision ought not to be taken into consideration.
20.11. By relying on P. Sundarmurthy's case, he submits that the date of the knowledge being much later than the date of the order, the
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NC: 2025:KHC-K:1739 WP No. 203394 of 2023 limitation would have to be considered from the date of knowledge.
20.12. If the date of knowledge were to be disputed by the other party, it is for the other party to establish that the person had knowledge much prior to the claimed date. In the present case, the matter being at the stage of issuance of show cause notice, these aspects would be dealt with by the Appellate Authority. These being the broad arguments which have been advanced, have to be considered in respect of the above point.
20.13. It is clear that Respondent No.9 was not a party to the proceedings filed by Sri. Shankarrao Doddi. He was also not a party to the proceedings filed by Sri.Vijay Kumar and Sri. Ravindraswamy. It is also clear that it is only in the year 2023 that Respondent No.9 contested the elections for the Aurad Reserve Constituency, where the petitioner had also
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NC: 2025:KHC-K:1739 WP No. 203394 of 2023 contested. Prior to 2023, there is nothing on record to indicate that Respondent No.9 had contested any elections against the petitioner. 20.14. Thus, the knowledge of the order on part of Respondent No.9, in my considered opinion would be irrelevant inasmuch as even if an order had been passed earlier and even if the same were to have come to the knowledge of Respondent No.9, Respondent No.9 could not have contested or challenged the said order, since Respondent No.9 would not have qualified to the status of an 'aggrieved person'. 20.15. Much arguments have been advanced as regards who is an aggrieved person, which has been considered in answer to point nos. 1&2 above, Sri. Ameet Kumar Deshpande, learned Senior Counsel having argued that Respondent No.9 is not an aggrieved person and therefore cannot maintain an appeal. The same would be equally applicable to the aspect of consideration
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NC: 2025:KHC-K:1739 WP No. 203394 of 2023 of limitation, inasmuch as, even if Respondent No.9 had knowledge about the order. 20.16. Respondent No.9 could not have challenged the said order, since he was not aggrieved until he had contested the election as a rival contestant against the petitioner, this having occurred in the year 2023, I am of the considered opinion that, irrespective of the date of the order under Section 4C or date of knowledge of the order on the part of Respondent No.9, Respondent No.9 being aggrieved only at the time of the electoral contest, it is thereafter that the limitation period would have to be considered. 20.17. In the present case, it has also been contended by Sri. Aditya Narayan, that it is only after the electoral contest that Respondent No.9 came to know about the earlier proceedings. Thus, this aspect would also have to be considered by the Appellate Authority while considering the aspect of limitation. It cannot ex-facie be said that the
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NC: 2025:KHC-K:1739 WP No. 203394 of 2023 appeal filed by Respondent No.9 is barred by the law of limitation. Limitation, as is trite law, being a mixed question of law and fact would have to be decided upon by the Appellate Authority in accordance with law, more so in view of the above observations made. 20.18. Thus, I answer Point No.4 by holding that a valid appeal under Section 4D of the Act of 1990 would have to be filed within a period of 30 days from the date of the order. However, the same would also have to be qualified by holding that without the knowledge of the order, no person could challenge the order. Thus, it would be from the date of knowledge of the order that the limitation period would have to be taken into account.
20.19. There being a specific restriction under Section 4D, that is only an aggrieved party who can file an appeal, the period of limitation would have to be calculated from the date on which a
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NC: 2025:KHC-K:1739 WP No. 203394 of 2023 person became aggrieved and the relevant factors in relation thereto would be required to be considered.
20.20. In the event of there being no knowledge of the order prior to being aggrieved and the date of knowledge of the order came to the aggrieved party after being aggrieved upon contesting the election, it was on the date on which the aggrieved party came to know about the earlier order, which would have to be then taken into consideration for the purpose of calculation of limitation.
20.21. This being the case, I'm of the considered opinion that Respondent No.9 being aggrieved by contesting elections against the Petitioner, and knowledge of the order of the DCVC having come to light in that background, the limitation period under section 4D of the Act of 1990 would thus run from that date thereon and therefore Respondent No. 9 cannot be said to
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NC: 2025:KHC-K:1739 WP No. 203394 of 2023 be ex facie barred by limitation in filing an appeal against the order of the DCVC under section 4D.
21. Answer to point No.5: On account of the earlier order passed by the DCVC, and the earlier appeal filed having been withdrawn, would the present appeal filed by respondent No.9 be barred by the principle of Res Judicata having attained finality, and in that regard amount to an abuse of legal process by initiating repeated proceedings?
21.1. Sri. Ameet Kumar Deshpande, learned Senior Counsel has very strenuously contended that the earlier appealby Sri.Shankarrao Doddi under Section 4D being withdrawn, the said withdrawal would constitute res judicata and the filing of the present appeal by Respondent No.9 is an abuse of the legal process. His submission is also that the petitioner has faced repeated enquiries. First, on account of the proceedings initiated by Sri.Shankarrao Doddi , secondly, on the basis of the proceedings initiated by Sri.Ravindraswamy and Sri.Vijay
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NC: 2025:KHC-K:1739 WP No. 203394 of 2023 Kumar and now for the third time, by Respondent No.9.
21.2. His submission is that the petitioner is a victim of all these actions, the petitioner cannot be forced to answer this issue about Caste Certificate on multiple occasions. The Caste Certificate has been held to be valid by the DCVC, the subsequent challenge made by Sri. Shankarrao Doddi has been withdrawn. The Revision Petition filed by Sri. Ravindraswamy and Sri.Vijay Kumar having been dismissed and confirmed by the Hon'ble Apex Court, Respondent No.9 could not have filed the present proceedings.
21.3. In this regard, he refers to the decision of the Hon'ble Apex Court in Gulabchand Parikh's case and submits that Section 11 of the CPC is not exhaustive with respect to an earlier decision. An earlier decision operating as a res judicata between the same parties on the same
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NC: 2025:KHC-K:1739 WP No. 203394 of 2023 matter in controversy, a subsequent suit would be governed under the general principle of res judicata.
21.4. However, any previous decision on a matter in controversy decided after full contest, or affording fair opportunity to parties to prove their case will operate as res judicata in respect of persons who are not parties to the earlier proceedings also. They said principle of res judicata would apply to proceedings under Article 226 or 32 of the Constitution of India and hence, he submits that the proceedings which came to an end by virtue of Sri. Shankarrao Doddi withdrawing the appeal would operate as res judicata. The dismissal of the revision petition filed by Sri.Ravind Swami and Sri.Vijay Kumar as regards the very same Caste Certificate would also operate as res judicata.
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NC: 2025:KHC-K:1739 WP No. 203394 of 2023 21.5. He relies upon the decision of this Court in Sri.A. Chandrasekhar case (Supra) and submits that there is a duty cast upon this Court to ensure that there is no abuse of the process of the Court. An issue of law can be overruled later on, but a question of fact cannot be reopened once it has been finally sealed in a proceedings inter se between the parties. His submission is that the doctrine of finality would have to be applied in a strict legal sense and reopening of concluded judgments of the Court would amount to an abuse of the process of the Court, and have far-reaching adverse effect on the administration of justice.
21.6. On that basis, he submits that the Appellate Authority ought to have taken into consideration that the claim made now by Respondent No.9 having already been decided earlier was not maintainable and ought to have
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NC: 2025:KHC-K:1739 WP No. 203394 of 2023 rejected the appeal filed by the Respondent No.9 as being barred by the res judicata. 21.7. The submission of Sri. C.Jagadish, learned counsel is that there is never any decision which has been rendered by any authority, the caste validation certificate having been issued by the DCVC had been challenged in a writ petition by Sri.Shankarrao Doddi. The petitioner contended that writ petition is not maintainable liberty is reserved for Sri.Shankarrao Doddi to file an appeal under Section 4D, the same came to be challenged by the petitioner by filing WP No.201341 of 2018 by contending that an appeal under Section 4D was not maintainable. The said petition came to be dismissed on 20.4.2018 in pursuance of which Sri. Shankarrao Doddi had filed an appeal under Section 4D. The said appeal was withdrawn by Sri.Shankarrao Doddi on 07.05.2018 when a cost of Rs.1,00,000/- was imposed on him.
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NC: 2025:KHC-K:1739 WP No. 203394 of 2023 21.8. Thus, he submits that these facts would indicate that the validity certificate which has been challenged by Sri.Shankarrao Doddi came to be withdrawn by him and there is no finding rendered by any authority under the Act of 1990 in relation thereto.
21.9. Insofar as the proceedings filed by Sri. Ravindraswamy and Sri.Vijay Kumar are concerned, he submits that they had filed a Revision Petition under Section 4F which was not accepted. Hence, a writ petition was filed by them before this Court which was accepted, challenging which a writ appeal was filed by the petitioner when the writ appeal Court held that a Revision Petition was not maintainable but an appeal under section 4D was maintainable. Thus, even in those proceedings filed by Sri.Ravindraswamy and Sri. Vijay Kumar, no finding has been rendered as regards the validity of the Caste Certificate relied upon by
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NC: 2025:KHC-K:1739 WP No. 203394 of 2023 the petitioner. Thus, he submits that there is no finding, final or otherwise, which has been rendered, therefore, the principles of res judicata would not apply. Similar is the submission made by Sri.Aditya Narayan, learned counsel for respondent No.9. 21.10. When these submissions and the records are considered, it is seen that though there are various proceedings which have been filed, firstly a writ petition by Sri. Shankarrao Doddi, then an appeal under Section 4D by Sri. Shankarrao Doddi, a writ petition by the petitioner, a Revision Petition by Sri. Ravindraswamy and Sri. Vijay Kumar, another writ petition before this Court by them, writ appeal by the petitioner and thereafter a special leave petition by Sri.Ravindraswamy and Sri.Vijay Kumar which came to be dismissed. The fact remains that in none of these proceedings any finding is given by any
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NC: 2025:KHC-K:1739 WP No. 203394 of 2023 authority or Court, as regards the validity or invalidity of the Caste Certificate relied upon by the petitioner.
21.11. The petitioner has been successful in thwarting an inquiry into the Caste Certificate, during this entire process, and it is for this reason that the conduct of the petitioner would also have to be taken into consideration. When Sri. Shankarrao Doddi had wrongly filed a writ petition challenging the validity of the Caste Certificate, the petitioner took a stand that a writ petition was not maintainable, but an appeal under Section 4D was maintainable. When Sri. Shankarrao Doddi filed an appeal under Section 4D, the petitioner took up a stand by filing a writ petition before this Court in WP No. 201341 of 2018 that the appeal under Section 4D was not maintainable.
21.12. The stand taken by the petitioner as regards both these proceedings filed by Sri. Shankarrao
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NC: 2025:KHC-K:1739 WP No. 203394 of 2023 Doddi clearly, categorically and unimpeachably establishes the contradictory stand on part of the petitioner, if not the malafide stand on part of the petitioner.
21.13. After dismissal of WP No. 201341 of 2018 when Sri.Shankarrao Doddi filed an appeal, the appeal was not prosecuted by Sri.Shankarrao Doddi but was withdrawn as regards which cost of Rs. 1,00,000 was imposed. The Withdrawal of the Appeal having occurred despite such cost having been imposed does not inspire confidence.
21.14. Now coming to the proceedings filed by Sri.Ravindraswamy and Sri.Vijay Kumar, for some reason, instead of filing an appeal under Section 4D, they chose to file a Revision under Section 4F which came to be rejected challenging which they had filed a writ petition before this Court, which came to be allowed and the matter remitted to the Revision Court.
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NC: 2025:KHC-K:1739 WP No. 203394 of 2023 21.15. This order was challenged by the petitioner in W.A.Nos.200031/2022 and WA No.200032/2022, the Division Bench of this Court came to a conclusion that a Revision Petition was not maintainable challenging a validity certificate, and it is only an appeal which is maintainable. That order having been challenged before the Hon'ble Apex Court, the Apex Court dismissed the appeal. Thus again, in those proceedings also, there is no finding either given by the Revisional authority , by a Single Judge of this Court, by the Division Bench of this Court or the Hon'ble Apex Court, as regards the validity or otherwise of the Caste Certificate of the petitioner.
21.16. Thus, in both the set of proceedings initiated by Sri.Shankarrao Doddi and that initiated by Sri.Ravind Swami and Sri.Vijay Kumar, the validity or invalidity of the Caste Certificate of the petitioner has not been decided.
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NC: 2025:KHC-K:1739 WP No. 203394 of 2023 21.17. Section 11 of the Code of Civil Procedure is reproduced hereunder for easy reference; Section 11: Res judicata.
No Court shall try any suit or issue in which the matter directly and substantially in issue has been directly and substantially in issue in a former suit between the same parties, or between parties under whom they or any of them claim, litigating under the same title, in a Court competent to try such subsequent suit or the suit in which such issue has been subsequently raised, and has been heard and finally decided by such Court. Explanation I.-- The expression former suit shall denote a suit which has been decided prior to a suit in question whether or not it was instituted prior thereto.
Explanation II.-- For the purposes of this section, the competence of a Court shall be determined irrespective of any provisions as to a right of appeal from the decision of such Court. Explanation III.--The matter above referred to must in the former suit have been alleged by one party and either denied or admitted, expressly or impliedly, by the other.
Explanation IV.-- Any matter which might and ought to have been made ground of defence or attack in such former suit shall be deemed to have been a matter directly and substantially in issue in such suit.
Explanation V.-- Any relief claimed in the plaint, which is not expressly granted by the decree, shall for the purposes of this section, be deemed to have been refused.
Explanation VI.-- Where persons litigate bona fide in respect of a public right or of a private right claimed in common for themselves and others, all persons interested in such right shall, for the
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NC: 2025:KHC-K:1739 WP No. 203394 of 2023 purposes of this section, be deemed to claim under the persons so litigating .
1[Explanation VII.-- The provisions of this section shall apply to a proceeding for the execution of a decree and references in this section to any suit, issue or former suit shall be construed as references, respectively, to a proceeding for the execution of the decree, question arising in such proceeding and a former proceeding for the execution of that decree.
Explanation VIII.-- An issue heard and finally decided by a Court of limited jurisdiction, competent to decide such issue, shall operate as res judicata in a subsequent suit, notwithstanding that such Court of limited jurisdiction was not competent to try such subsequent suit or the suit in which such issue has been subsequently raised.] 21.18. A reading of Section 11 would indicate that no Court shall try any suit or issue in which the matter directly and substantially in issue has been directly and substantially in issue in a former suit between the same parties, or between the parties under whom they or any of them claim, litigating under the same title, in a Court competent to try such subsequent suit and/or the suit in which such issue has been
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NC: 2025:KHC-K:1739 WP No. 203394 of 2023 subsequently raised, has been heard and finally decided by such Court.
21.19. Applying Section 11 to the present facts, it is clear that the issue involved in all the proceedings is as regards the validity or invalidity of the Caste Certificate of the petitioner.
21.20. However, there are no proceedings between the same parties i.e., petitioner and respondent No.9 earlier, inasmuch as the first set of proceedings was between the petitioner and Sri. Shankarrao Doddi, the second set of proceedings were between the petitioner and Sri. Ravindraswamy and Sri. Vijay Kumar, respondent No.9 was not a party to either set of proceedings .
21.21. Insofar as the phrase litigating under the same title, the aspect of the certificate does not relate to title, it is only the petitioner who claims under the same validity certificate to
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NC: 2025:KHC-K:1739 WP No. 203394 of 2023 that extent, it could probably be said that the issue being the same and claiming under the same validity certificate. Thus, the aspect of res judicata could be considered. But however, all these aspects are qualified by the phrase "and has been heard and finally decided by such Court". Thus, the issue should have been heard and finally decided by a Court.
21.22. In the present matter, as indicated supra, though the issue relates to the validity or invalidity of the Caste Certificate of the petitioner, such validity or invalidity has neither been heard nor been decided. All the earlier litigations have been fought on technicalities, and on the fringes, none of the litigations touching upon the merits of the validity or invalidity of the Caste Certificate. 21.23. Once again, the petitioner seeks to take up a technical argument of res judicata so as to thwart the present proceedings. I am of the
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NC: 2025:KHC-K:1739 WP No. 203394 of 2023 considered opinion that such an attempt cannot once again be allowed to be permitted. More so, as rightly contended by Sri. C. Jagdish, learned counsel, the Act of 1990 and the Rules of 1992 and the Reservation Contemplated under Article 15 and 16 of the Constitution are required to be protected in its true sense of the word inasmuch as this Court is vested with a duty to ensure that the persons who are entitled to the benefit of such reservation, receives such benefits without any interference from anyone whether private or governmental authority.
21.24. There is also a duty imposed on this Court to ensure that a person who is not entitled to a benefit of reservation under Article 15 or 16 in terms of the Rules and Procedures prescribed under the Act of 1990 and the Rules of 1992 does not get any such benefit which he or she is not entitled to.
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NC: 2025:KHC-K:1739 WP No. 203394 of 2023 21.25. Thus, the obligation and duty imposed on this Court is two fold one to ensure that the person who is entitled to get the benefit gets such benefit. The other to ensure that the person who is not entitled to the benefit, does not abuse the benefit and action is taken in relation thereto.
21.26. In that view of the matter, I am of the clear and categorical opinion that the principles of res judicata would not be applicable to the present case.
21.27. I answer point No.5 by holding that the earlier order passed by DCVC being challenged in a writ petition and subsequently in appeal and thereafter in a Revision Petition, there is no order passed on merits on the validity or invalidity of the said Caste Certificate. Therefore, the same would not attract the principles of res judicata and as such, the appeal now filed by respondent No.9 under
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NC: 2025:KHC-K:1739 WP No. 203394 of 2023 Section 4D challenging the validity of the Caste Certificate issued to the petitioner cannot be said to be an abuse of the legal process, nor can it be said to be repeated proceedings. It is for the appellate authority to verify and ascertain the validity or invalidity of the caste certificate.
22. Answer to point No.6: Would respondent No.2 be regarded as Functus Officio on account of the earlier appeal having been withdrawn, and thus estopped from adjudicating on the fresh appeal?
22.1. The submission of Sri. Ameet Kumar Deshpande is that respondent No.2-Appellate Authority has been rendered Functus Officio on account of having heard the earlier appeal, and the same having been withdrawn and as such, no appeal could be filed by respondent No.9 before respondent No.2.
22.2. This argument is again an argument in futility in as much as the appeal filed by Sri.Shankarrao Doddi had been withdrawn and the Appellate
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NC: 2025:KHC-K:1739 WP No. 203394 of 2023 Authority having imposed costs on Sri.Shankarrao Doddi, the order had been extracted hereinabove. It is clear that the withdrawal of the appeal was made even before a finding on merits had been rendered by Respondent No.2.
22.3. Thus, there being no order passed by Respondent No.2 on merits and the lis between the parties not having been considered. I am of the considered opinion that the appeal has not been decided, the appeal has only been permitted to be withdrawn. It is only after an Appellate Authority performs its duties in terms of the applicable law that the Respondent No.2 would become 'Functus Officio'. 22.4. In the present matter, no order has been passed on merits. The appellate powers not having been exercised and the appellate duties not having been discharged, I am of the considered opinion that Respondent No.2
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NC: 2025:KHC-K:1739 WP No. 203394 of 2023 cannot be said to be the 'Functus Officio', so as to contend that Respondent No.2 is estopped from adjudicating on a fresh appeal filed by Respondent No.9.
22.5. Hence, I answer point No.6 by holding that an Appellate Authority can only be regarded as 'Functus Officio' after an order on merits is passed, if no order on merits is passed and the appeal is withdrawn, it cannot be said that the Appellate Authority is rendered 'Functus Officio' more so when the earlier appeal had been filed by one other person and the present appeal is filed by a completely different person.
23. Answer to Point No.7: Whether a person born in a caste or community which is not notified as a scheduled tribe or scheduled caste in the State of birth, upon migration to another State, wherein the Caste or community is notified as a scheduled caste or scheduled tribe, be entitled to the benefit granted to such scheduled caste or scheduled tribe in the State to which the person has migrated to?
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NC: 2025:KHC-K:1739 WP No. 203394 of 2023 23.1. The submission of Sri. Ameet Kumar Deshpande, learned Senior Counsel is that the petitioner was born within the State of Karnataka, and within the State of Karnataka the petitioner qualifies to be a member of the Scheduled 'Lambani' Caste and as such the certificate issued by the Thasildar in the State of Karnataka would suffice.
23.2. The submission of Sri. Adithya Narayan, learned counsel appaering for Respondent No.9 is that the petitioner was not born within the State of Karnataka and a certificate issued for a caste scheduled within the State of Karnataka to the petitioner would not suffice.
23.3. In the State of Maharashtra, his father and grandfather were residents of Tondchir Village, Udgir Taluk, Latur Distrct in Maharashtra State belonging to Lambani, (Banjara community), which is denotified nomadic tribe in Maharashtra under Article 154 and 164 of the
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NC: 2025:KHC-K:1739 WP No. 203394 of 2023 Constitution of India. Thus, his submission is that the 'Lambani' caste not being a scheduled caste in Maharashtra State, the petitioner would not be entitled to the benefits of the 'Lambani caste' being a Scheduled Caste in the State of Karnataka.
23.4. He further contends that the family of the petitioners are not residents of Karnataka, the father of the petitioner, Mr. Bambla had married Mrs. Moti Bai of Gamsabai Tanda, Bonti village, Aurad Taluk, Bidar District and after their marriage they were residing in Maharashtra State. The petitioner is the fifth son of the said Sri. Bhamla and Smt. Moti Bai. He having completed 1st to 12th standard in Pratibha Devi Ashrama School, Silvani Border Tanda, Degalur Taluk, Nanded District, Maharashtra State.
23.5. His further submission is that the petitioner married one Smt. Sakkubai of Gumsubai Tanda,
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NC: 2025:KHC-K:1739 WP No. 203394 of 2023 Bidar District and they had two children. The children are studying in Thane District of Maharashtra State and the petitioner also has a residence in Thane. On that basis, he submits that the petitioner not belonging to a scheduled caste in the State of his birth cannot claim the benefit of his caste being a Scheduled Caste in the State of Karnataka.
23.6. The aspect of migration and its impact on caste has been considered on several earlier occasions. Scheduled caste has been defined under Clause 24 of Article 366, which reads as under:
(24) "Scheduled Castes" means such castes, races or tribes or parts of or groups within such castes, races or tribes as are deemed under article 341 to be Scheduled Castes for the purposes of this Constitution;
23.7. Article 341 lays down the procedure in which a caste may be specified as a Schedule Caste by the Parliament, the said Article 341, reads as under:
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NC: 2025:KHC-K:1739 WP No. 203394 of 2023
341. Scheduled Castes (1)The President may with respect to any State or Union territory, and where it is a State after consultation with the Governor thereof, by public notification,specify the castes, races or tribes or parts of or group within castes, races or tribes which shall for the purposes of this Constitution be deemed to be Scheduled Castes in relation to that State or Union territory, as the case may be.
(2)Parliament may by law include in or exclude from the list of Scheduled Castes specified in a notification issued under clause (1) any caste, race or tribe or part of or group within any caste, race or tribe, but save as aforesaid a notification issued under the said clause shall not be varied by any subsequent notification.
23.8. In terms of Sub-article (1) of Article 341, the President of India has issued the Schedule Caste Order 1950, which is amended from time to time. In view of Sub-article (2) of Article 341, the list having been issued, the same cannot be amended and altered by anyone apart from the Parliament. The aspect of residence is of paramount importance insofar as determination of whether a person is a person belonging to the Schedule Caste or not .
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NC: 2025:KHC-K:1739 WP No. 203394 of 2023 23.9. Reference is required to be drawn to the Constitution Bench of the Hon'ble Apex Court in Marri Chandra Shekar Rao vs Dean, Seth G.S. Medical College & Ors.34 more particularly para nos. 13 & 14 thereof, which are reproduced hereunder for easy reference:
13. It is trite knowledge that the statutory and constitutional provisions should be interpreted broadly and harmoniously. It is trite saying that where there is conflict between two provisions, these should be so interpreted as to give effect to both. Nothing is surplus in a Constitution and no part should be made nugatory. This is well settled. See the observations of this Court in Venkataramana Devaru v. State of Mysore [1958 SCR 895, 918 : AIR 1958 SC 255] , where Venkatarama Aiyer, J. reiterated that the rule of construction is well settled and where there are in an enactment two provisions which cannot be reconciled with each other, these should be so interpreted that, if possible, effect could be given to both. It, however, appears to us that the expression 'for the purposes of this Constitution' in Article 341 as well as in Article 342 do imply that the Scheduled Caste and the Scheduled Tribes so specified would be entitled to enjoy all the constitutional rights that are enjoyable by all the citizens as such.
Constitutional right, e.g., it has been argued that right to migration or right to move from one part to another is a right given to all -- to Scheduled Castes or Tribes and to non- scheduled castes or tribes. But when a 34 (1990) 3 SCC 130
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NC: 2025:KHC-K:1739 WP No. 203394 of 2023 Scheduled Caste or Tribe migrates, there is no inhibition in migrating but when he migrates, he does not and cannot carry any special rights or privileges attributed to him or granted to him in the original State specified for that State or area or part thereof. If that right is not given in the migrated State it does not interfere with his constitutional right of equality or of migration or of carrying on his trade, business or profession. Neither Article 14, 16, 19 nor Article 21 is denuded by migration but he must enjoy those rights in accordance with the law if they are otherwise followed in the place where he migrates. There should be harmonious construction, harmonious in the sense that both parts or all parts of a constitutional provision should be so read that one part does not become nugatory to the other or denuded to the other but all parts must be read in the context in which these are used. It was contended that the only way in which the fundamental rights of the petitioner under Articles 14, 19(1)(d), 19(1)(e) and 19(1)(f) could be given effect to is by construing Article 342 in a manner by which a member of a Scheduled Tribe gets the benefit of that status for the purposes of the Constitution throughout the territory of India. It was submitted that the words "for the purposes of this Constitution" must be given full effect. There is no dispute about that. The words "for the purposes of this Constitution" must mean that a Scheduled Caste so designated must have right under Articles 14, 19(1)(d), 19(1)(e) and 19(1)(f) inasmuch as these are applicable to him in his area where he migrates or where he goes. The expression "in relation to that State"
would become nugatory if in all States the special privileges or the rights granted to Scheduled Castes or Scheduled Tribes are carried forward. It will also be inconsistent with the whole purpose of the scheme of reservation. In Andhra Pradesh, a Scheduled Caste or a Scheduled Tribe may require protection because a boy or a child who grows in that area is inhibited or is at disadvantage. In Maharashtra that caste or that tribe may not be so inhibited
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NC: 2025:KHC-K:1739 WP No. 203394 of 2023 but other castes or tribes might be. If a boy or a child goes to that atmosphere of Maharashtra as a young boy or a child and goes in a completely different atmosphere or Maharashtra where this inhibition or this disadvantage is not there, then he cannot be said to have that reservation which will denude the children or the people of Maharashtra belonging to any segment of that State who may still require that protection. After all, it has to be borne in mind that the protection is necessary for the disadvantaged castes or tribes of Maharashtra as well as disadvantaged castes or tribes of Andhra Pradesh. Thus, balancing must be done as between those who need protection and those who need no protection, i.e., who belong to advantaged castes or tribes and who do not. Treating the determination under Articles 341 and 342 of the Constitution to be valid for all over the country would be in negation to the very purpose and scheme and language of Article 341 read with Article 15(4) of the Constitution.
14. Our attention was drawn to certain observations in Elizabeth Warburton v. James Loveland [1832 HL 499] . It is true that all provisions should be read harmoniously. It is also true that no provision should be so read as to make other provisions nugatory or restricted. But having regard to the purpose, it appears to us that harmonious construction enjoins that we should give to each expression --"in relation to that State" or "for the purposes of this Constitution" -- its full meaning and give their full effect. This must be so construed that one must not negate the other. The construction that reservation made in respect of the Scheduled Caste or Tribe of that State is so determined to be entitled to all the privileges and rights under the Constitution in that State would be the most correct way of reading, consistent with the language, purpose and scheme of the Constitution. Otherwise, one has to bear in mind that if reservations to those who are treated as Scheduled Caste or Tribe in Andhra Pradesh are
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NC: 2025:KHC-K:1739 WP No. 203394 of 2023 also given to a boy or a girl who migrates and gets deducted (sic inducted) in the State of Maharashtra or other States where that caste or tribe is not treated as Scheduled Caste or Scheduled Tribe then either reservation will have the effect of depriving the percentage to the member of that caste or tribe in Maharashtra who would be entitled to protection or it would denude the other non-Scheduled Castes or non- Scheduled Tribes in Maharashtra to the proportion that they are entitled to. This cannot be logical or correct result designed by the Constitution.
23.10. The Hon'ble Apex Court in Marri Chandra Shekhar's case has held that the expression in relation to State would become negatory, if in all States the special privileges of the rights granted to Schedule Caste or Schedule Tribes are carried forward. It will be inconsistent with the whole purpose of the scheme of reservation.
23.11. In one State, a particular Caste or Tribe may be at a disadvantage, while in the other it may not be. The preparation of the list as indicated above, it is on the basis of the residence in that particular State. At
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NC: 2025:KHC-K:1739 WP No. 203394 of 2023 para 23, the Hon'ble Apex Court held as under:
23. Having construed the provisions of Articles 341 and 342 of the Constitution in the manner we have done, the next question that falls for consideration, is, the question of the fate of those Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribe students who get the protection of being classed as Scheduled Caste or Scheduled Tribe in the States of origin when, because of transfer or movement of their father or guardian's business or service, they move to other States as a matter of voluntary (sic involuntary) transfer, will they be entitled to some sort of protective treatment so that they may continue or pursue their education. Having considered the facts and circumstances of such situation, it appears to us that where the migration from one State to another is involuntary, by force of circumstances either of employment or of profession, in such cases if students or persons apply in the migrated State where without affecting prejudicially the rights of the Scheduled Castes or Scheduled Tribes in those States or areas, any facility or protection for continuance of study or admission can be given to one who has or migrated then some consideration is desirable to be made on that ground. It would, therefore, be necessary and perhaps desirable for the legislatures or the Parliament to consider appropriate legislations bearing this aspect in mind so that proper effect is given to the rights given to Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes by virtue of the provisions under Articles 341 and 342 of the Constitution. This is a matter which the State legislatures or the Parliament may appropriately take into consideration.
23.12. Thus from the perusal of para 23, it is clear that the Hon'ble Apex Court has suggested
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NC: 2025:KHC-K:1739 WP No. 203394 of 2023 to the Parliament to consider the manner in which migration could be considered and enact a proper law in relation thereto. 23.13. Where a person belonging to caste or tribe specified for the purpose of being constitutionally Scheduled Caste or Scheduled Tribe in relation to State-A migrates to State-B will that person be entitled to claim the privileges when it is admissible to the persons belonging to Schedule Caste and or Schedule Tribes in State-B, is answered in the above decision in the negative.
23.14. The Hon'ble Apex Court in the case of Ranjana Kumari vs State of Uttarakhand35 at para nos. 4 and 5, has observed as under:
4. Two Constitution Bench judgments of this Court in Marri Chandra Shekhar Rao v. Seth G.S. Medical College [Marri Chandra Shekhar Rao v. Seth G.S. Medical College, (1990) 3 SCC 35 (2019) 15 SCC 664
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NC: 2025:KHC-K:1739 WP No. 203394 of 2023 130 : 1 SCEC 382] and Action Committee on Issue of Caste Certificate to SCs/STs v. Union of India [Action Committee on Issue of Caste Certificate to SCs/STs v. Union of India, (1994) 5 SCC 244] have taken the view that merely because in the migrant State the same caste is recognised as Scheduled Caste, the migrant cannot be recognised as Scheduled Caste of the migrant State. The issuance of a caste certificate by the State of Uttarakhand, as in the present case, cannot dilute the rigours of the Constitution Bench judgments in Marri Chandra Shekhar Rao [Marri Chandra Shekhar Rao v. Seth G.S. Medical College, (1990) 3 SCC 130 : 1 SCEC 382] and Action Committee [Action Committee on Issue of Caste Certificate to SCs/STs v. Union of India, (1994) 5 SCC 244] .
5. We, therefore, find no error in the order of the High Court to justify any interference. The appeal is accordingly dismissed. 23.15. The Hon'ble Apex Court in the case of Action Committee vs Union of India36 at para nos. 3 and 16 has observed as under:
3. On a plain reading of clause (1) of Articles 341 and 342 it is manifest that the power of the President is limited to specifying the castes or tribes which shall, for the purposes of the Constitution, be deemed to be Scheduled Castes or Scheduled Tribes in relation to a State or a Union Territory, as the case may be. Once a notification is issued under clause (1) of Articles 341 and 342 of the Constitution, Parliament can by law include in or exclude from the list of Scheduled Castes or Scheduled Tribes, specified in the notification, any caste or tribe but save for that limited purpose the notification issued under 36 (1994) 5 SCC 244
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NC: 2025:KHC-K:1739 WP No. 203394 of 2023 clause (1), shall not be varied by any subsequent notification. What is important to notice is that the castes or tribes have to be specified in relation to a given State or Union Territory. That means a given caste or tribe can be a Scheduled Caste or a Scheduled Tribe in relation to the State or Union Territory for which it is specified. These are the relevant provisions with which we shall be concerned while dealing with the grievance made in this petition.
16. We may add that considerations for specifying a particular caste or tribe or class for inclusion in the list of Scheduled Castes/Schedule Tribes or backward classes in a given State would depend on the nature and extent of disadvantages and social hardships suffered by that caste, tribe or class in that State which may be totally non est in another State to which persons belonging thereto may migrate. Coincidentally it may be that a caste or tribe bearing the same nomenclature is specified in two States but the considerations on the basis of which they have been specified may be totally different. So also the degree of disadvantages of various elements which constitute the input for specification may also be totally different. Therefore, merely because a given caste is specified in State A as a Scheduled Caste does not necessarily mean that if there be another caste bearing the same nomenclature in another State the person belonging to the former would be entitled to the rights, privileges and benefits admissible to a member of the Scheduled Caste of the latter State "for the purposes of this Constitution". This is an aspect which has to be kept in mind and which was very much in the minds of the Constitution-makers as is evident from the choice of language of Articles 341 and 342 of the Constitution. That is why in answer to
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NC: 2025:KHC-K:1739 WP No. 203394 of 2023 a question by Mr Jaipal Singh, Dr Ambedkar answered as under:
"He asked me another question and it was this. Supposing a member of a Scheduled Tribe living in a tribal area migrates to another part of the territory of India, which is outside both the scheduled area and the tribal area, will he be able to claim from the local Government, within whose jurisdiction he may be residing the same privileges which he would be entitled to when he is residing within the scheduled area or within the tribal area? It is a difficult question for me to answer. If that matter is agitated in quarters where a decision on a matter like this would lie, we would certainly be able to give some answer to the question in the form of some clause in this Constitution. But so far as the present Constitution stands, a member of a Scheduled Tribe going outside the scheduled area or tribal area would certainly not be entitled to carry with him the privileges that he is entitled to when he is residing in a scheduled area or a tribal area. So far as I can see, it will be practicably impossible to enforce the provisions that apply to tribal areas or scheduled areas, in areas other than those which are covered by them...."
Relying on this statement the Constitution Bench ruled that the petitioner was not entitled to admission to the medical college on the basis that he belonged to a Scheduled Tribe in the State of his origin.
23.16. In Ranjana Kumari's case, by referring to Mari Chandra and Action Committee's case, the Hon'ble Apex Court held that
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NC: 2025:KHC-K:1739 WP No. 203394 of 2023 merely because in the migrating State the same caste is recognised as scheduled caste, the migrant cannot be recognised as Scheduled Caste of a migrant State. 23.17. Thus, holding that a person of Scheduled Caste or Scheduled Tribe can take benefit of that caste or tribe only in the State of birth if the caste or tribe to which he belongs is a Schedule Caste or Schedule Tribe in the state of Birth.
23.18. If the caste or tribe in the state of Birth is not a Schedule Caste or Schedule Tribe, such person cannot take advantage of the caste being a Schedule Caste or Schedule Tribe in the state of migration.
23.19. In that view of the matter, I answer point No.7 by holding that a person born in a caste or community which is not notified as a Scheduled Caste or a Scheduled Caste in the State of birth, upon migration to
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NC: 2025:KHC-K:1739 WP No. 203394 of 2023 another State wherein that caste or community is notified as a Scheduled Caste or Scheduled Tribe, will not be entitled to the benefit granted to, such Scheduled Caste or Scheduled Tribe in the State to which the person has migrated to.
24. Answer to point No.8: Even if an election petition were to be filed, could the election tribunal, be empowered to decide on the validity or otherwise of the caste certificate under the Karnataka Scheduled Caste, Scheduled Tribes and Other Backward Classes (Reservation of Appointments, Etc.) Act, 1990 or would it have to be done by the authorities as constituted under the Act of 1990? 24.1. The submission of Sri. Ameet Kumar Deshpande, learned Senior Counsel is that respondent No.9 could not have filed an appeal under Section 4D, if at all respondent No.9 has any grievance as regards the validity of the Caste Certificate of the petitioner, Respondent No.9 ought to have filed an election petition under the Representation of People's Act and in this regard, he submits that all the aspects and
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NC: 2025:KHC-K:1739 WP No. 203394 of 2023 contentions would have been considered in the election petition.
24.2. The submission of Sri.Aditya Narayan, learned counsel for respondent No.9 is that even though respondent No.9 has an option to file an election petition in the State of Karnataka. The aspect of validity or otherwise of a Caste Certificate would have to be determined, in accordance with the Act of 1990 and the Rules of 1992 thereunder, and the same cannot be determined by the Court seized of the election petition.
24.3. In this regard, he relies upon Bhagwati Prasad Dixit's case and submits that even if an election petition were to be preferred, the said Court seized of the election petition would be guided by the authority constituted under the 1990 Act to determine matters on the said question as regard to the validity of the caste certificate of a person/candidate
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NC: 2025:KHC-K:1739 WP No. 203394 of 2023 24.4. The authority is established under the 1990 Act, which is a special enactment being competent and empowered to do so having requisite specialized knowledge in relation thereto. 24.5. He also relies upon the decision of the Hon'ble Andhra Pradesh High Court in Durga Singh's case and submits that the election tribunal cannot go into the matters of legality and validity of the Caste Certificate of a returned candidate and the same is not a ground by itself to set aside the election of a returned candidate. The Act of 1990 providing a comprehensive framework to ascertain the validity or otherwise of the caste certificate, the same would have to be done in terms of the legal process under the Act of 1990. 24.6. By relying on Sri. Shiddalingappa Mallappa Abbigeri's case, he submits that even a Court adjudicating an election petition where a Caste Certificate has been impugned, is required to
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NC: 2025:KHC-K:1739 WP No. 203394 of 2023 suspend the proceedings and direct the parties to approach the DCVC for necessary orders. In the present case, the DCVC having already issued a validity certificate which is impugned, it is only the Appellate Authority under Section 4D which can consider the matter. As such, neither the Court seized of the election petition nor the DCVC can look into the matter and it is in that background that in Sri. Shiddalingappa Mallappa Abbigeri's case, that an appeal under Section 4D was filed. 24.7. As indicated supra, the classification of Schedule Caste and Schedule Tribes is made under the Constitution of India by the President. Once the classification is made, it cannot be changed except by the Parliament. This aspect would clearly and categorically establish the rigour through which, the classification of Schedule Caste and Schedule Tribes in each State has been made and any
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NC: 2025:KHC-K:1739 WP No. 203394 of 2023 changes thereof requiring the Parliament to do so. The sanctity of the list prepared is paramount.
24.8. There being no particular mechanism for upholding the sanctity, the Hon'ble Apex Court in Madhuri Patil's case laid down certain directions at para nos. 15, 16, 17 and 18 (supra) 24.9. It is in furtherance of the observation, guidelines and recommendations of the Hon'ble Apex Court that a complete overhaul of the Act of 1990 and the Rules of 1992 were made. The aspects relating to the same have been dealt with by the Hon'ble Apex Court in Madhuri Patil's case, where it came to a conclusion that an enquiry into the caste status would require an enquiry to be made in respect of the traditions, customs, etc., followed by such person in order to determine whether those customs and traditions are in accordance with
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NC: 2025:KHC-K:1739 WP No. 203394 of 2023 the customs and traditions of that particular caste or tribe. For this purpose, the Hon'ble Apex Court had directed the establishment of specialised agencies and as afore observed, Sub-section (2) of Section 4 and the various Rules were brought into effect from the year 2000, in furtherance of the recommendation made by the Hon'ble Apex Court.
24.10. The Act of 1990 and the Rules of 1992 are comprehensive ones which provide for the rights which could be exercised as also the grievance which could be redressed. It is in furtherance of that the District Caste Validation Committee has also been established and the manner in which the committee is to function has also been detailed out.
24.11. Suffice it to say, that the procedure prescribed under the Act of 1990 and Rules of 1992 are comprehensive in nature and the actions which could be taken by the authorities being in the
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NC: 2025:KHC-K:1739 WP No. 203394 of 2023 nature of fact-finding can be better done by those Authorities under the Act and the Rules. It is for that reason that in the various decisions referred to supra, the Hon'ble Apex Court and other Courts and this Court have categorically held that if a challenge to an election has been made where the Caste Certificate is impugned, the validity or otherwise would have to be ascertained in terms of the Act of 1990 as per the Rules of 1992.
24.12. Thus, the Court seized of the election petition, being a District Court or the like, would not have the wherewithal to conduct the detailed inquiry as required, at least at the first instance and as such, all aspects relating thereto would have to be referred to the properly constituted fora in that regard, namely the 'District Caste Verification Committee'.
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NC: 2025:KHC-K:1739 WP No. 203394 of 2023 24.13. Thus, I answer point No.8, by holding that even if an election petition were to be filed, the election tribunal would not be empowered to decide on the validity or otherwise of the caste certificate, the same would have to be determined by the authorities constituted under the Karnataka Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes and Other Backward Classes (Reservation of Appointment etc.) Act, 1990 in terms of the Act of 1990 as also the Rules of 1992, taking into consideration all the relevant factors by causing a local inquiry in that regard.
25. Answer to point No.9: In the present case, can this Court go into the aspect of validity or otherwise of the caste certificate of the petitioner or would it have to be left to the concerned authority under the Act of 1990? 25.1. In view of my answer to point No.8, I answer point No.9 by holding that this Court or the court seized of the election petition can though ofcourse, determine the validity of the orders passed by the authorities under Section 4. Any
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NC: 2025:KHC-K:1739 WP No. 203394 of 2023 fact-finding would have to be made by the authorities under Section 4 and not by this Court or the Court seized of the election petition and hence all fact-finding tasks would have to be left to the authorities constituted under the Act of 1990.
26. Answer to point No.10: Can the High Court consider the disputed question of facts and allegations of fraud in the present writ petition or would it have to be decided by the concerned authority under the Act of 1990?
26.1. The aspect of fraud which is sought to be pleaded by Respondent No.9 is that the petitioner was born in Maharashtra. In the State of Maharashtra, his caste is not a Scheduled Caste, merely because his caste is a Scheduled Caste in the State of Karnataka, the petitioner cannot be entitled to the benefits granted to Scheduled Caste in the State of Karnataka.
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NC: 2025:KHC-K:1739 WP No. 203394 of 2023 26.2. Insofar as the point of law is concerned, the same has been answered hereinabove as regards the entitlement. But what would have to be considered is where was the petitioner born and then apply the law accordingly. The aspect of birth and the location of birth are all questions of fact, which would have to be established by both the parties before the Appellate Authority and it would not be proper for this Court to appreciate the evidence in this regard in a writ petition.
27. Answer to point No.11: Whether the doctrine of merger would apply in the instant case? 27.1. The aspect of Doctrine of Merger has been invoked by Sri. Ameet Kumar Deshpande, learned Senior Counsel for the petitioner on the ground that the challenge made by Sri. Ravindraswamy and Sri. Vijay Kumar having been rejected, the Single Judge having remanded the matter on challenge, the Division
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NC: 2025:KHC-K:1739 WP No. 203394 of 2023 Bench having set aside the finding of the single judge and holding that a Revision Petition under section 4F was not maintainable. The same having been confirmed by the Hon'ble Apex Court, it would be applicable even to this matter.
27.2. This aspect has also been dealt with hereinabove and I have come to a conclusion that the subject matter of these proceedings have not been dealt with and decided in those proceedings.
27.3. Irrespective of whether Doctrine of Merger would apply to the challenge made by Sri. Ravindraswamy and Sri. Vijay Kumar leading up to the decision of the Hon'ble Apex Court, the fact remains that what was considered there was the applicability of Section 4F, namely whether a Revision Petition was maintainable challenging the validity certificate issued by DCVC and the Division Bench on the
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NC: 2025:KHC-K:1739 WP No. 203394 of 2023 Hon'ble Apex Court came to a conclusion, that the same was not maintainable.
27.4. The order passed by the Hon'ble Apex Court therefore would be binding insofar as proceedings under Section 4F are concerned. As dealt with supra, the issue in question in the present matter is as regards an appeal filed under Section 4D and not a Revision under Section 4F. The maintainability of an appeal under Section 4D has also been dealt with hereinabove.
27.5. Thus, irrespective of the Doctrine of Merger being applicable to the proceedings initiated by Sri.Ravindranath Swami and Sri.Vijay Kumar, I am of the considered opinion that the orders passed therein would not have a bearing on an appeal filed under Section 4D, which would have to be dealt with independently.
28. Answer to point No.12: Whether this Court can intercede and adjudicate upon the impunged notice?
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NC: 2025:KHC-K:1739 WP No. 203394 of 2023 28.1. In view of my findings above, the challenge which has been made to the show cause notice calling upon the enquiry to be made, I am of the considered opinion that no grounds having been made out, this court need not intercede as regards the said show cause notice. 28.2. All the other arguments which have been addressed by Sri. Ameet Kumar Deshpande, Sri C. Jagdish and Sri.Aditya Narayan, have been considered and dealt with in this order. Thus, it would be for the petitioner to appear before the Appellate Authority and submit his say in the matter, which would have to be considered by the Appellate Authority and necessary orders passed in accordance with law.
29. General Direction:
29.1. Much has been argued in the present matter as regards the proceedings which have been filed, and that they have attained finality on behalf of
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NC: 2025:KHC-K:1739 WP No. 203394 of 2023 the petitioner. Much has been argued on the part of Respondent No.9, that Respondent No.9 did not have knowledge of any of those proceedings and as such could not have challenged it earlier, apart from the contention that Respondent No.9 became an aggrieved party only subsequently.
29.2. In this regard, I am of the considered opinion that the candidate while making a declaration would also have to make a declaration as regards any challenge made to any certificate of his, be it caste, education or the like. So the same could be considered by the election authorities, as also come to the knowledge of the general populace and other candidates to take any objection if they desire to do so. 29.3. Thus, I am of the opinion that the Law Commission would have to look into this aspect insofar as elections which are conducted under
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29.4. Insofar as the other matters, it would be for the State to prepare appropriate guidelines indicating that the contestant will have to furnish details of all the litigations pending and decided that the candidate is/was involved in both civil and criminal matters before judicial, quasi-judicial or administrative authorities so that the information is available to one and all including the voting populace, as also the rival candidates. Transparency would require all material details as regards the election to be placed for consideration before all the concerned.
29.5. A report to this effect to be filed by learned AGA within a period of six weeks from now i.e., on or before 28.04.2025
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30. Answer to point No.15: What order?
30.1. No grounds being made out, the petition stands dismissed.
30.2. Though the above petition is dismissed, relist on 28.04.2025 to report compliance.
Sd/-
(SURAJ GOVINDARAJ) JUDGE SR/-
List No.: 48 Sl No.: 1